QP-CGeoScnstP-25-GENERAL-STUDIES-PAPER-I-100225

Combined Geo-Scientist (P) Examination-2025 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : ESGC-A-GST Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET 6. a | Paper—I & ie oe ( GENERAL STUDIES ) Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in 4. THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. . Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. . You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . All items carry equal marks. . Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. . Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO (9) feitmgine-oge) banidmod 1. An electromagnetic wave with its magnetic field B=0-3cos(ky-10%t)i tesla is propagating in a non-magnetic dielectric medium of refractive index 2. The wavelength of the wave is (a) 6mm (b) 3xnm (c) 0-3m (a) (2n/3)m 2. A spherical conductor of radius a has a cavity of radius b at its centre such that a> b.A positive charge q is placed at its centre (see in the figure). The electric fields in the regions b<r<aandr>a are respectively (a) 4a 5 inward and 4néga qd ‘a! outward (b) —4 — inward and zero 4ne gr? q 4neor (c) zero and outward 2 (d) zero and zero ESGC-A-GST/53A 280S-Ntoltsnimex3 3. For a given system of resistors having resistances R, 2R, Ro and 2R (shown in the figure), what will be the value of resistance of the resistor Ro, when there is NO current in the galvanometer G? B R QR A Cc 2R Ro D (a) Ry =0 (b) Ry=R (c) Ro =2R (d) Ry =4R 4. A cyclotron has an oscillator frequency of 12x10°Hz and ‘Dee’ radius of 21 inches. The value of magnetic induction (field) needed to accelerate a deuteron (mass = 3-34 x 10727 kg and charge = 1:6x107!9 C) is (a) 1-573 tesla (b) 157-3 tesla (c) 15-73 tesla (d) 0-157 tesla 5. When white light propagating in air passes through a glass prism, it splits into a band of colours referred to as the white light spectrum. This phenomenon is called the dispersion of light. Among the following colours, the angle of deviation will be the highest in (a) yellow (b) green (c) orange (ad) red 6. Why do we prefer to have a liquid and not a gas to be used as the fluid in a hydraulic machine? (a) Liquids are compressible while gases are not. (b) Liquids are nearly incompressible and transfer the pressure applied to them. (c) Liquids are nearly incompressible and do not transfer the pressure applied to them. (ad) Liquids are compressible and transfer the pressure applied to them. 7. A threshold frequency for photoelectric emission in copper is 1-1x 10'5 Hz, When the light of frequency 1-2x10!5 Hz is directed on the copper surface, the maximum energy of emitted particles would be (Planck’s constant is 6-62 10754 J-s and the charge on the electron is 1-6x 10719 C) (a) 0:-414eV— (b) 4-14 eV (c) 41-4eV (d) 0-828 eV 8. The masses of 3He, 3H and iH nuclides are respectively 4-002603 amu, 3-016056 amu and 1-007276 amu. How much energy should a y-ray photon possess if it is to split an a-particle into a tritium (3H) and a proton (|H)? (Given that 1 amu of mass is equivalent to 931 MeV) (a) 19-30MeV (b) 0-931MeV (c) 0-021MeV (d) 0-194 MeV ESGC-A-GST/53A A 10 keV electron (mass = 9-1x1073! kg and charge = 1:6x i C) enters perpendicularly into the LEarth’s magnetic field (5x10~> T). Its Larmor radius is (a) 5:93km (b) 5-93m (c) 6:75 km (a) 6-75 m 10. A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 128 m. What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in Line of Sight mode? (The radius of the Earth = 6400 km) (a) 45254 km (b) 45254m () 60715 m ‘(d) 60715 km 11. A man walks at a speed of 6 km/hr for 1 km and 8 km/hr for the next 1 km. What is the average speed for the walk of 2 km? (a) 6-86 km/hr (b) 14 km/hr (c) 3-Skm/hr (d) 1-4 km/hr 12. A particle moves in a circle of radius 0-2 m. Its linear speed is given by v = 2t, where t is in seconds and v is in m/s. The ratio of tangential to radial accelerations at t = 3 seconds would be (a) 1:1 (b) 1:90 (39 (d) 1:10 [ P.T.O. 13. Which one among the following is the sum of moments of inertia (about a tangent to curved surface) of a solid 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : cylinder and a solid sphere? (The masses and radii of both the cylinder List-I List-I and the sphere are M and R (Phenomenon) (Approximate respectively) temperature) (a) (17/5)MR2 (b) 2MR2 A. The freezing point of 1. 300K benzene - (c) (12/5)MR? (ad) (29/10)MR2 B. The room temperature 2. 600 K C. The normal human body 3. 279 K temperature 14. The focal length of a thin lens made up of glass of refractive index 1-5 (see the D. The melting point oflead 4. 310K figure below) having two centres of curvatures G and Cy, with 15cm Code : and 30cm as radii of curvatures respectively, would be (a) A B e D 3 4 1 2 A (Bie AB je3e eae ae C, CS 2 1 4 3 () A B Cc D <15 cm> 2 4 1 3 ee oa oe (aj) A B c D (a) 45 cm (b) 10 cm pS a (ly 60 cai fo an 17. The ratio of electrostatic potentials at a distance of 1 angstrom from the proton (charge = 1:6x10719C and mass = 1-67x 10727 kg) and from the electron (charge = 1-6x107!9C and mass = 9-1x 1073! kg) would be 15. The saturation vapour pressure at 300 K is 3-6kPa and the gas constant R is 8-3J/(K-mol). The mass of water 3 vapour per m~ of air at temperature (aist 300 K and relative humidity 50% is (b) 1:67:9-1 (a) 13g (b) 26g (c) 1-67 :0-00091 (c) 52g (da) 39¢ (d) 1:2 ESGC-A-GST/53A 4 18. A glass bar (refractive index = 1-5) is 21. The radius of the first stationary state immersed in a liquid having the same orbit of hydrogen atom is refractive index as that of glass. The angle of incidence for a light ray at which the light would be transmitted through the glass bar without reflecting is (a) 5-0A (b) 52-9 pm (c) 5:29 pm (d) 0-529 pm 22. Which one among the following is an oO ° == a example of olfactory indicator? oO ° ik is a (a) Litmus 19. A sound wave consists of (b) Methyl orange (a) a compression pulse and a rare- (c) Phenolphthalein copa pulse separated by a May Cision distance of one wavelength (b) compression and rarefaction pulses 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the one after the other correct answer using the code given (c) a number of rarefaction pulses one below the Lists : after the other List-I List-II (a) a number of compression pulses (Naturally occurring (Main source) one after the other acid) 20. Which one of the following statements is A. Methanoic acid 1. Orange not true? ip B. Citric acid 2. Tomato (a) The centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the centre. C. Tartaric acid 3. Ant sting (b) The motion of an object is called D. Oxalic acid 4. Tamarind uniform circular motion if the object follows a circular path at a Code : constant speed. (a) A B c D (c) The velocity vector of a particle at a 3 1 4 2 point is always along the tangent to the path of the particle at that (b) A B Cc D point. 2 4 1 S (ad) The net acceleration of a particle in () A B c D: circular motion is always along the : 4 i : radius of the circle towards the (ad) A B Cc D centre. 2 1 4 3 ESGC-A-GST/53A 5 [PIT-0% 24. Which one among _ the constituents of cement is responsible for initial setting? (a) Calcium sulphate (b) Dicalcium silicate (c) Tricalcium aluminate (ad) Tetracalcium alumina ferrate 25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Pigment) A. PbO B. Pb30,4 C. Crg03 D. Graphite Code : (a) A B 4 3 (b) A B 1 2 () A B 1, 3 (aj) A B 4 2 ESGC-A-GST/53A NO List-IT (Colour) . Yellow Red Green Black following 26. Water has its maximum density at which one of the following temperatures? (a) (c) 273 K (b) 277K 373 K (d) 298K 27. Which one of the following properties of an element was considered by Mendeleev in order to form his Periodic Table? (a) (b) (c) (4) Atomic volume Atomic mass Atomic number Vapour density 28. Which one among the following statements for the reaction between a metal and nitric acid is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d@) Nitric acid acts as an oxidizing agent. Hydrogen liberated in the reaction is converted into water. Gaseous nitrogen is always obtained as a final product. Magnesium reacts with very dilute nitric acid to liberate hydrogen gas. 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the 32. Separation of the isotope of uranium correct answer using the code given requires a physical method rather than below the Lists : a chemical method. It is so mainly List-I List-II because (Compound) (Type of oxide) (a) it is too dangerous to mix other A. H,0 1. Amphoteric chemicals with uranium B. Na,O Ds Redic (b) the isotopes are chemically the 1 t C. Al,0, 3. Neutral pagel as ! (c) the isotopes differ in number of D. CO, 4. Basic neutrons es (a) natural uranium contains only Se eS: ee 0:7% U-235 3 4 1 2 (b) A B Cc D 33. Which one of the following compounds is 2 1 4 3 produced in human stomach? ‘(c.g Seaten Omer P. (a) Milk of magnesia 3 4 4 7 (b) Nitric acid @A B Cc D ; x 2 4 1 3 (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Citric acid 30. Which one of the following reactions correctly represents the respiration 34. The rate of evaporation of a liquid resection? decreases with an increase in (a) 2H, +O, >2H,0 (a) surface area (b) C6H,20¢ + 602 — 6CO, + 6H20 (b) temperature (ce) CHy +20, > CO, +2H20 (c) humidity (d) CeHyg0¢ +H20 > CgHj907 +Hg (d) wind speed 31. Which one of the following statements is 35. Consider the following elements : not correct? 1. Bromine (a) Water at 0 °C will have more energy 2. Phosphorus than that of ice at 0 °C. 3. Mercury (b) Temperature of ice remains constant as long as its melting is 4. Radon not complete. How many of the above elements are (c) Water vapour at 100 °C will have found in liquid form at 25°C and at more energy than that of water at 1 atm? 100 °C. (d) Temperature of water varies during (a) 1 (b) 2 the process of vaporization. (c) 3 (ad) 4 ESGC-A-GST/53A 7 [Pet-0. 36. Which of the following associations is/are example/examples of mutualism? 1. Mycorrhizae : Fungi and roots of higher plants 2. Lichens : Fungi and photosynthetic algae 3. Pollination : Mustard flower and honeybees Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only 37. Which one of the following adaptive characteristics of the organism is correct? (a) Mammals in colder climates have shorter ears and limbs. (b) In polar seas, seals tend to have thinner layers of fat below their skin. (c) Plants in deserts tend to have broader and elaborate leaves. (a) In higher altitudes, the production of RBC in human body decreases. 38. Xerophytic plants adapt to the hot arid regions by (a) developing thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces (b) opening stomata only during the day (c) having photosynthetic roots (a) growing leaves only during the winter ESGC-A-GST/53A 39. Which among the following stages of cell cycle is correctly matched in its characteristics? (a) Interphase : Growth of cell and replication of DNA (b) Interphase : Cell begins to separate its DNA contents (c) Mitotic phase : Growth of cell and DNA replication (ad) Mitotic phase : Both the daughter cells are provided with double the amount of DNA 40. Which one of the following sets of diseases is example of polygenic disorders? (a) Sickle cell anaemia, Haemophilia, Hypertension (b) Hypertension, Coronary heart disease, Diabetes (c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Colour blindness, Diabetes (da) Achondroplasia, Cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs disease 41. Which one of the following is not associated with the Jhum cultivation in Northeastern States of India? (a) Deforestation (b) Conservation of natural habitats of wild flora and fauna (c) Slash and burn agriculture (ad) Shifting agriculture 42. Which one of the following Protocols was 46. Consider the following statements : signed in the year 1987 to reduce the production and use of ozone-depleting It is an extremely cold wind laden with substances? dry snow. This wind has sub-freezing (a) Kyoto Protocol temperature and carries abundant ft Montreal Protocdl supply of ice crystals and snow. (c) Nagoya Protocol (a) Cartagena Protocol The statements are related to (a) Harmattan (b) Tramontane 43. Which one of the following statements is comect? (c) Chinook (a) Blizzard (a) UV-B radiations damage DNA but do not cause mutation. 47. The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass (b) Cornea in human eyes absorbs through UV-B radiations. (a) Uruguay (b) Paraguay (c) UV radiations of wavelength greater than UV-B are completely absorbed by the Earth’s atmosphere. (ad) UV-B radiations may be useful to treat snow blindness. (a) Arctic region (c) Chile (a) Brazil 48. Llamas are typically reared in (b) sub-Sahara region 44. Which one of the following viruses is considered to be _ responsible for (c) Andes mountain region COVID-19? (a) (a) SARS-CoV-2 (b) SARS-CoV-19 Great Karoo region 49. The cultivation of which one of the following crops was introduced in the (c) SARS-CoV-20 Baba Budan Hills? (d) SARS-CoV-1 (a) Tea (b) Coffee 45. Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short (c) Apple (d) Pineapple Palindromic Repeats are associated with (a) gene-editing method 50. Among the following, which one is the least in percentage by volume in the (b) designing a guide DNA atmosphere? (c) Norman Myers and Stanley Cohen (d) double-strand break and template- guided RNA repair (c) Helium (a) Neon (a) Hydrogen (b) Argon ESGC-A-GST/53A 9 PREo: - In which among the following atmospheric layers, the temperature increases with height? (a) Mesosphere and Thermosphere (b) Stratosphere and Mesosphere (c) Stratosphere and Thermosphere (d) Troposphere and Mesosphere 52. Which one among the following tectonic plates is not located in the Pacific Ocean? (a) Nazca Plate (b) Cocos Plate (c) Juan de Fuca Plate (a) Scotia Plate 53. Distance of about 147 million kilometres between the Sun and the Earth is found during the Earth’s orbit around the Sun at the position of (a) Perihelion (b) Aphelion (c) Vernal Equinox (dq) Autumnal Equinox 54. Which one among the following rivers is a tributary of river Hooghly? (a) Padma (b) Jamuna (c) Damodar (d@) Meghna ESGC-A-GST/53A 10 55. Consider the following characteristics of a type of soil as given by the Natural Resources Conservation Service (NRCS) : 1. It develops in poorly drained areas. 2. It is largely composed of slowly decomposing plant material. 3. It is common in Tundra areas. On the basis of the above characteristics, identify the type of soil. (a) Entisols (b) Inceptisols (c) Histosols (a) Andisols 56. Exfoliation in rocks can occur due to forces induced by 1. carbonation 2. oxidation 3. temperature change Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and3 57. Which one of the following is related with the term ‘Nephanalysis’? (a) Albedo analysis (b) Cloud analysis (c) Analysis of pollution level in water (ad) Analysis of nitrogen level in soil 58. Among the following local winds, which one is known as “Doctor’s wind”? (a) Chinook (b) Khamsin (c) Harmattan (ad) Nor’wester 59. Which one among the following cities is not connected through the Canadian Railway line? (a) Vancouver (b) Ottawa (c) Montreal (ad) Yellowknife 60. The Govind Ballabh Pant Trans- National Institute of Himalayan Environment (GBPNIHE) has its Headquarters at (a) Leh (b) Gangtok (c) Almora (d) Itanagar ESGC-A-GST/53A 61. The Deccan Riots of 1875 were peasant rebellions against which of the following classes? (a) Zamindars (b) British Officials at Poona (c) Moneylenders/Sahukars (ad) Patels/Village Headmen 62. Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. Who among _ the following was instrumental in persuading Mahatma Gandhi not to restrict the protest to men alone? (a) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay (b) Avantika Bai Gokhale (c) Sarojini Naidu (ad) Mithuben Petit 63. Who among the following commanders was not tried in the INA trials in the Red Fort, Delhi? (a) P. K. Sahgal (b) G. S. Dhillon (c) Mohan Singh (a) Shah Nawaz Khan 64. Which one among the following pairs of organizations and their founders is not correctly matched? (a) British Indian Association : Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore (b) Indian League : Shishir Kumar Ghose (c) Bombay Association Sucheta Kripalani (ad) Indian Association : Surendranath Banerjee [ P.T.O. 65. Consider the following statements about 67. Among the Ashtapradhans of Shivaji, the Virashaiva Movement : who among the following did not hold any military commands besides civil duties? 1. Peshwa 2. Amatya 3. Sumanta 4. Pandit Rao 1. The Virashaiva Movement was led by Basavanna. 2. Virashaivas worshipped Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga. 3. Vachanas, composed in Kannada, Select the correct answer using the are the main compositions for code given below. understanding the Virashaiva tradition. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above (c) 1 and 4 is/are correct? (da) 4 only (a) 1’ana Y only 68. The Battle of Chinhat was fought between fy Vand Soy (a) Shivaji and Mughal forces near (c) 2 only Naneghat in 1676 (b) the Marathas and Afghans in 1760 before the Third Battle of Panipat (c) the rebels of 1857 and British forces (d) Tipu Sultan and the Nizam in 1794 (aq) 1,2 and 3 66. Which of the following temples are constructed by Krishnadeva Raya? 1. Krishnadeva Temple 2 Sty a Rama Temple 69. Who among the following is the most frequently invoked God in the 3. Vitthalaswami Temple Rig Veda? 4. Tiruvengalanatha Temple (a) Indra (b) Agni (c) Surya (a) Varuna Select the correct answer using the code given below. 70. Which one of the following pairs of the Bhakti poets and their works is not correctly matched? (a) Jnaneshvara : Bhavartha Deepika (b) Jayadeva : Gita Govinda (c) 1 and 4 only (c) Eknath : Bhavartha Ramayana (@) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Tulsidas : Adhyatma Ramayana (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only ESGC-A-GST/53A 12 71. Which of the following statements about the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 is/are correct? 1. It is based on the guidelines emerging from the Vishaka Judgment of the Supreme Court of India in 1997. 2. As per the Act, it is mandatory for an employer even with two employees to form an Internal Committee in the workplace. 3. Vishaka is the name of the woman complainant who filed the case. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (9 1, 2 and.3 (@) 3 only 72. With reference to Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward classes of citizens. 2. The State can deny a woman to be appointed as a doctor in the Army Medical Institutes on account of pregnancy. 3. Creamy layers amongst the backward classes of citizens are determined by income criteria only. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (@d) 1, 2 and 3 ESGC-A-GST/53A 13 73. When the President of India is impeached for the violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by (a) the Lok Sabha (b) the Rajya Sabha (c) either House of the Parliament (da) the Lok Sabha followed by the Rajya Sabha 74. The Vice President of India, who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States, is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of the Members of (a) the Rajya Sabha only (b) both the Houses of the Parliament (c) both the Houses of the Parliament and the Upper House of the State Legislatures (a) both the Houses of the Parliament and the Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and UTs 75. Which country is the Chair of G20 for the year 2025? (a) China (b) Brazil (c) Russia (ad) South Africa 76. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 reserves one-third of all seats for women in various Legislatures. For how many years will the reservation be available under this Act? (a) 10 years (b) 12 years (c) 15 years (dq) 20 years [ P.T.0. 77. Which of the following statements about Money Bill is/are correct? 1. The Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha shall be returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days with its recommendations. 2. The Lok Sabha shall agree to the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha on the Money Bill to consider it passed by both the Houses of the Parliament. 3. The Finance Minister has absolute powers to pass the Money Bill. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 78. Consider the following statements : 1. The idea of the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India is inspired by the Constitution of Ireland. 2. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution of India upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. 3. The Fundamental Duties are justiciable through a Writ. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (aq) 1, 2 and 3 ESGC-A-GST/53A 14 79. Which one among the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is not correct? (a) It is not enforceable by any court. (b) It is enforceable by _ courts, therefore, they are fundamental in the governance of the country. (c) It envisions a social order where inequalities of income are minimized. (d) It strives for equal pay for equal work for both men and women. 80. The Election Commission of India holds election for (a) the Parliament of India, State Legislatures and for the posts of the President and Vice President of India (b) the Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies and State Legislative Councils only (c) the Parliament of India only (d) the Parliament of India and State Legislatures only 81. Which one among the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides the mandate for the implementation of the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India? (a) Article 41 (b) Article 44 (c) Article 47 (d) Article 51 82. The Padmaja Naidu Zoological Park is situated in which one among the following States? (a) Tamil Nadu (c) Chhattisgarh (b) Karnataka (ad) West Bengal 83. Which one of the following statements 86. The scientific name of Mango is with reference to the Constitution of Mangifera indica L. The word indica India is correct? stands for which one of the following? (a) Part IX of the Constitution is about (a) Generic name Municipalities. (b) General name (b) Part IXB of the Constitution is ; about Cooperative Societies. (c) Species name (c) Part XV of the Constitution is about (a) Specific epithet Tribunals. 87. Which one of the following is the (d) Part XVI of the Constitution is i ‘ ; oe main driver in explaining the about Elections. cohesion-tension-transpiration pull 84. ‘Appiko Movement’ for protecting the model of water transport in plants? trees by hugging them began in which of (a) Evapotranspiration the following States? (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Karnataka (b) Transpiration (c) Cohesion process (a) Surface tension (a) Rajasthan 88. Which one of the following combinations consists of essential components of 85. Consider the following statements about biomolecules and structural elements of the development plans in India : cella? 1. The concept of Five-Year Plan is inspired by the USSR. (a) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen 2. The Planning Commission was A established in the year 1950. (b) Magnesium and phosphorus 3. The Five-Year Plans were supposed (c) Iron, zinc and manganese to provide the basis for the : (ad) Calcium, potassium and sulphur Perspective Plans. Which of the statements given above 89. Which one of the following categories is/are correct? does not have photosynthetic pigments? (a) 1 and 2 only (a) Algae (b) 2 and 3 only (b) Fungi ()-4;-2and-3 (c) Angiosperms (@) 1 only (a) Gymnosperms ESGC-A-GST/53A 15 [ P.T.O. 92. The 93. In 90. Which of the following organisms ingest dead organic matter and then digest internally and absorb the nutrients? (a) Detritivores only (b) Saprotrophs only (c) Both detritivores and saprotrophs (a) Chemotrophs 91. Which one of the following statements about ecosystems is not correct? (a) Ecosystems are not self-sustaining. (b) Nutrient cycling supplies inorganic nutrients. (c) Energy flows in ecosystems mostly rely on sunlight. (d) Ecosystems support communities of organisms. global temperature and CO, concentration for the last eight lakh years were deduced mainly from which one of the following? (a) Fossil fuel (b) Tree annual ring (c) Ice coring in tropical mountain peaks (d) Ice coring in the Antarctic Plateau Germany, the date in the spring season when new leaves open on horse chestnut trees (Aesculus hippocastanum) has been recorded every year since 1951. Which one among the following groups of scientists primarily records such seasonal activities of plants? (a) Physiologists (b) Phenologists (c) Taxonomists (d) Ecologists ESGC-A-GST/53A 16 96. The The ability of corals to make their skeletons primarily depends on which one of the following factors? (a) Temperature (b) pH (c) CO, concentration (a) Salt concentration 95. The International Botanical Congress held in 1892 proposed that the year 1753 be the reference year for biological nomenclature. It is because (a) Genera Plantarum was published in 1753 (b) Species Plantarum was published in 1753 (c) Systema Naturae was published in 1753 (d) Philosophia Botanica was published in 1753 cooperative aggregates of microorganisms can form colonies on various surfaces by secreting signalling molecules. Which one of the following phenomena explains it? (a) Biopile (b) Biomarker (c) Biofilm (d) Biomass 97. Which one among the following locations is also known for the strange phenomenon of alleged bird suicides? (a) Diphu (b) Tura (c) Jatinga (a) Dirang 98. Which one of the following correctly explains a species’ unique environ- mental requirements, its role and position in the spatial habitats at a given time? 102. Which one of the following books expressed concern on the _indis- criminate use of DDT and played major role in banning the use of DDT for agricultural use? (a) Ecological equivalent (a) Walden (b) Niche overlap (b) Half-Earth (c) Niche expansion (c) Silent Spring (@) Ecological niche (ad) The End of Nature 99. When Paramecium caudatum and 103. Which one of the following statements Paramecium urelia are cultured about nature reserves is not correct? together under ideal _ laboratory (a) These protect biodiversity. conditions, the population of Paramecium caudatum may gradually (b) These should always be small. be completely disappeared. Which one (c) A circular reserve is generally of the following laws or principles correctly explains it? superior to an extended strip of land with the same total area. (a) Niche expansion (d) Several reserves may be connected (b) Niche replacement by corridors. (c) Competitive exclusion principle 104. Which one of the following pairs of (ad) Adaptive radiation Ramsar Sites and States is not correctly matched? 100. Which one of the following species (a) Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary : disproportionately affects ecosystem Gujarat dynamics? ; (b) Rudrasagar Lake : Tripura (a) Umbrella species mae, (c) Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary : (b) Flagship species Sikkim (c) Priority species (a) Haiderpur Wetland : Uttar Pradesh (ad) Keystone species 105. Which one of the following biogeo- 101. Which one of the following is an example chemical cycles is sedimentary in of endemic plant species of India? nature? (a) Prosopis juliflora (a) Carbon cycle (b) Nepenthes khasiana (b) Nitrogen cycle (c) Lantana camara (c) Oxygen cycle (d) Parthenium hysterophorus (a) Phosphorus cycle ESGC-A-GST/53A 17 [PEeO; 106. Purvodaya initiative, under the Union Budget 2024-25, includes which of the following States? 1. Bihar 2. Jharkhand 3. Odisha 4. West Bengal 5. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (@) 1, 2, 3,4 and 5 107. Consider the following statements with reference to the Presidential elections of the USA : 1. California has the largest allocation of votes in the Electoral College. 2. In 2016, Hillary Clinton won more percentage of popular votes than Donald Trump. 3. A Presidential candidate cannot win an election without winning highest percentage of popular vote. - Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 3 only ESGC-A-GST/53A 18 108. Which/Who among the following has been selected for the Nobel Peace Prize, 2024? (a) The World Food Programme (b) Dmitry Muratov (c) Nihon Hidankyo (ad) Ales Bialiatski 109. The 19th East Asia Summit (EAS) was held in (a) Phnom Penh (b) Jakarta (c) Bandar Seri Begawan (ad) Vientiane 110. The host country of the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup, 2025 is (a) Bangladesh (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) India and Bangladesh jointly 111. The Species Survival Commission of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) conferred the ‘Harry Messel Award (2024)’ upon (a) Jadav Payeng (b) Dr. Krithi Karanth (c) Bibhab Kumar Talukdar (a) Kinkri Devi 112. Which one of the following films was awarded the National Film Award, India in 2024 in the category of Best Feature Film promoting National, Social and Environmental Values? (a) Gulmohar (b) Kutch Express (c) Uunchai (d) Kaberi Antardhan 113. Naseem-Al-Bahr, held in October 2024, was a joint maritime exercise between the navies of India and (a) Indonesia (b) Azerbaijan (c) Oman (a) Qatar ESGC-A-GST/53A 114. Which one of the following countries hosted the QUAD Leaders’ Summit in 2024? (a) India (b) Australia (c) The USA (da) Japan 115. In Vazhachal forest division, tribal community members are being engaged in the removal of invasive species from the forest. Identify the tribe. (a) Katkari (b) Kadar (c) Bamcha (a) Bhil 116. The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is proposed to be developed at which one of the following places? (a) Lothal (b) Porbandar (c) Kandla (d) Okha [ P.T.O. 117. Which one of the following statements about Tele MANAS App is correct? (a) It has been launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India for the safety of the girl child. (b) Parents of children under 14 years can report through this App directly to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India about nutritional deficiencies of their children. (c) It is a Mobile App for providing support for mental health issues. (a) This App has been launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India for holistic curricular development of schoolchildren. 118. With regard to the findings of the Second All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey of NABARD, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The average monthly income of rural households saw a rise over a five-year period from 2016-17 to 2021-22. 2. The average monthly expenditure of tural households saw a decline over a five-year period from 2016-17 to 2021-22. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (ad) Neither 1 nor 2 ESGC-A-GST/53A 20 119. Consider the following States : 1. Kerala 2. Karnataka 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Bihar Which of the above States celebrate their Foundation Day on November 1? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1,3 and 4 120. Which of the following statements about the ‘Kaveri Meets Ganga’ Programme is/are correct? 1. It was the first cultural event held under the Amrit Parampara series. 2. It is a_ river-water linking programme under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-A-GST/53A 21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-A-GST/53A 22: SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-A-GST/53A 23 [ P.T.O. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kkk ESGC-A-GST/53A 24 25SS—12840