QP-CGeoScnstP-25-GEOPHYSICS-PAPER-II-100225

Combined Geo-Scientist (P) Examination-2025 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : ESGC-B-GPS Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET Paper—II ( GEOPHYSICS ) Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300 1 - You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS - IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. . Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. . This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. - You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . All items carry equal marks. . Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. . Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO (1) 1211118:08-090 850 1. Rheology is the study of (a) mountain building process (b) deformation and flow of solid materials (c) deformation and flow of liquid materials and gases (0) gravity effect of the Sun and the Moon 2. Consider the following nuclear electric quadrupole moments (Q) of the nuclei : Nuclide Q (in barn) 133 ag - 0.003 161177 +2-401 638 - 0209 Which one of the following statements regarding the shape of these nuclei is correct? (a) 630 is prolate, 13308 is near spherical and tol Dy. is oblate. (b) 630 and 13308 are prolate and 1610 is oblate. (0 6300 and 16175 are oblate and 133 09 is prolate. () cu is oblate, 13308 is near spherical and !©!Dy is prolate. 3. The ratio of the nuclear magneton and Bohr magneton is (a) 1836 (b) (0) 1/3672 1/1836 (c) 3672 ESGC-B-GPS/54A டாணா 4. Which one of the following has maximum binding energy per nucleon? ` 2116 ‎ 12 (0 5811 ( 6 5. A heavy nucleus goes to spontaneous symmetric fission. The energy released using the Bethe-Weizsacker mass formula (neglecting pairing term) is given by (132 ) (a) a,A3(1-21/3) +a, 2 (b) a,A3(1+2"/3)+a, ‎ (1-22/3) AB 2 (0 4 (1+21/3) + (1+2-2/3) 43 2 3 >= 2/3 (0) a,A3(1- 21/3) +a, <~ (1- 22/3) 43 6. In the Sun, the fusion process generates energy using proton-proton cycle. Which one of the following reactions is dominating in the 3He burning process? (a) 3 4 7 27 4+ 2116 > 4Be + 3 2 4 (b) 26 + { 3 3 4 (c) 2767 03 116‎ +d 3 3 4 (0) pHe+ 281 , 7. Which one among the following laws can be used to determine the mass of a planet? (a) Kepler’s first law (b) Kepler’s second law (c) Kepler’s third law (a) Newton’s first law 8. When the ??Na nucleus decays to 22Ne, both electron capture decay and positive beta decay processes are energetically possible. If the Q-value of electron capture decay of 22Na is 2:254 MeV, then the Q-value of positive beta decay of 72Na is (a) 3-276 MeV (b) 2:254 MeV (c) 1:743 MeV (d) 1-232 Mev 9. The maximum Coulomb repulsive potential that the a-particle experiences in the a-decay of ae Po is [given, Rp = 1-20 fm] (a) 22:24 MeV (b) 26:21 MeV (c) 30:24 MeV (d) 3424 Mev ESGC-B-GPS/54A 10. The Compton scattering interaction of photon with matter results the creation of recoil electron and _ scattered gamma-ray photon. Which one of the following statements is correct about this process? (a) Maximum kinetic energy of the recoil electron can be equal to the energy of initial photon. (b) Maximum energy of the scattered photon can be greater than the energy of initial photon. (c) Minimum kinetic energy of the recoil electron can be zero. (a) Minimum energy of the scattered 2 photon is much greater than st 11. A 2:556 MeV photon interacts with a medium via pair-production process. The energy of the single escape peak detected by the Nal(Tl) scintillation detector is (a) 2-045 Mev (b) 1534 MeV (c) 1:022 MeV (d) 0511 MeV [ P.7.0. 12. Consider that two isotopes of uranium os U and 235 have abundance 93:0% and 7:0%, respectively in a planet. If (a) Proportional counter 16. Which one of the following detectors is coupled with photomultiplier tube? these two isotopes were equal at the (b) GM counter time of planet formation, then the age of (c) Ionization counter the planet (in years) is (da) Nal(Tl) scintillator given, the half-lives of 735U and 738u are 7x 108 years and 4-5x109 years, respectively; In93 = 4533 and In7 17. The wavelength of electron having kinetic energy 100 eV is = 1946] (a) 0-123 nm (a) 3-1x109 (b) 5-9x108 (b) 0-132 nm (c) 3-1x10® = (d)_5-9x109 (c) 0-231 nm (a) 0-312 nm 13. Secular variations in the geomagnetic field represent 18. Electromagnetic waves are travelling in vacuum. The relationship between group velocity (vg) and phase velocity (a) daily variations (b) seasonal variations (vp) is 1 rsh (c) annual variations (a) Ug <vp (b) Ug = v2 (da) variations over decades or centuries (c) Ug >Up (a) Ug=vp 19. Which one of the following electron experiments does not confirm the wave nature of the electron? 14. Naturally occurring radioactive isotope, which has only beta decay as primary mode of decay, is (a) 1860s (+) ?32Th () 235u (a) 17ty (a) Davisson and Germer experiment (b) G. P. Thomson’s experiment (c) Photoelectric effect 15. The activity of 2:0 g of ?7°Ra is [given, the half-life of ?7°Ra is 1600 years] 20. The Balmer series of hydrogen spec- (d) Young’s double-slit experiment (a) 3-7x10!° Ci (b) 7-4x10!° ci (c) 2x10!° Bq (a) 7-4x10!° Bq ESGC-B-GPS/54A trum is labelled as Hg, Hg, Hy, Hs, ... for n=3,4,5,6..., respectively. The spectrum line that has blue colour is (a) Hg line (b) Hg line (c) Hy line (d) Hg line 21. The wave number of singly ionized helium atom for the first spectral line of Balmer series is (0) 0-0381x107 m7! (b) 0-1524x107 m7} ( 0-3048x107 m7} (0 0-6096x 107 m7! optical image? (a) (b) Scale Shadow 23. Which one of the following parameters does not govern the texture in an (c) Spatial resolution (d) Dielectric constant 24. The momentum of a free non-relativistic particle is (a) 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given (b) below the Lists : List-I [Microwave band] 1. C-band K-band Ka-band Ku-band L-band P-band S-band ~ X-band Code : (a) (b) (c) જી । ୪୭୦୦ (0) 8 NOES‏ [ NO ESGC-B-GPS/54A AM OD © € > oy ay ay directly proportional to square root of its energy inversely proportional to square root of its energy List-II (c) directly proportional to square of [Frequency its energy (in 002] (0) inversely proportional to square of its energy 0-3-1 1-2 25. Match List-I with 1451-11 and select the correct answer using the code given 257 below the Lists : ‎ List-I List-Il 8-12-5 [Electromagnetic [Frequency range radiation] (in 112] 12-5-18 A. Gamma 7875 1. 109-1012 18-26-5 B. Infrared 2. 8302-1014 * 26-5-40 C. Microwave 3:10 5 ^ D. Ultraviolet 4. 1091022 Code : 0 3 1 2 4 0 € . 3 2 1 4 B € D 4 1 2 8 (0 A 8 6 D 4 2 1 3 5 [% . 26. In an atom, a photon is emitted during a transition from energy level E, to energy level 52. If the difference between ] and E, is 4136 eV, then the Consider the following statements regarding spectral distribution of energy for blackbody radiation : 1. For given wavelength, the energy density decreases with increase in temperature. corresponding photon wavelength is approximately 2 each temperature, the distribution of energy shows a maximum, which shifts to longer [given, the Planck’s constant 15 4-136 x 10715 eVs and the speed of light A 8 is 3x10" m/s] wavelength as temperature increases. 3 each temperature, the (1 distribution of energy shows a maximum, the product of wavelength and temperature at the maximum is constant value. (b) 30:0 nm 9 3:00 nm Which of the statements given above ( 030 is/are correct? "30 nm (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 27. For blackbody radiation, the pressure (P) is given by the relation (0 1 and 3 4675 29. For shorter wavelength limit, the Planck’s (a) P= radiation law becomes (a) Rayleigh-Jeans law (0) Wien’s radiation law (b) P= 467 () Stefan’s law ec / Kirchhoff’s law 3075 30. A nuclear fission explosion produces a ~^ = fireball which can be approximated as a blackbody having electromagnetic radiation power 12:56 MW. The electro- 675 magnetic radiation intensity at 5 km (0 P= ‎ distance is (a) 25 MW/m? ‌ : (b) 0:04 MW/m? [where T is temperature, o is Stefan’s (© 25 W/m? constant and c is the distance travelled /m by radiation in unit time] (0 0:04 W/m? ESGC-B-GPS/54A 6 31. Consider the following thermodynamic relation : dU = TdS- Pdv [where U = internal energy, S = entropy, T = temperature, P = pressure and V = volume] Which one of the following pairs is correct, as obtained from the above thermodynamic relation? (a) T=-(0U/0S)y and P=-(QU/aV), (b) T=+(0U/0S)y and P=+(0U/AV)5 (ce) T=+(0U/0S)y and P=-(@U/V), (a) T=-(QU/0S), and P=+(0U/aV)5 32. Which one of the following functions is defined by the 2nd law of thermo- dynamics? (a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy (c) Internal energy (a) Pressure 33. A heat pump uses 2 kW of electrical power supply to heat a house at 25 °C when the outside temperature is 0 °C. The maximum heat flow rate is (a) 23:84 kJ/s (b) 11:92 kJ/s (c) 2:0 kJ/s (a) 0-17 kJ/s ESGC-B-GPS/54A 36. 34. 35. Consider two isolated protons at a distance qd apart. Suppose their electrostatic force of repulsion is equal in magnitude to the gravitational force acting on either proton at the surface of the Earth. In terms of the charge and mass of a proton, e and m, respectively, the free space permittivity & 9, and the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth’s surface, g, the value of dis (a) e/(mg,/4neq) (b) mge / [4&9 (c) e/J4negmg (a) (mg,j4neg) /e An electric dipole consists of charges of magnitude 2:0 nC, separated by 6:0 pm. It is placed in an electric field of magnitude 1000 N/C. The magnitude of difference between the potential energies for dipole orientations parallel and anti-parallel to the electric field is (a) 1-2x107!° joule (b) 2-8x107!? joule (c) 1-4x107}? joule (a) 2-4x107!? joule Two identical spherical water droplets, each of radius a and carrying charge gq, combine to form a single spherical water drop, the electric potential at the surface of which is V. In terms of gq, a and the free space permittivity e9, the value of V is (a) 2-4/3 q/ (nega) (b) 2-7/3 nq /(ea) () 27/3q/(ne9a) (a) 24/3nq/(e9a) [ P.T.O. 37. A long straight wire, carrying a steady current J, lies on the surface of the Earth. The Earth’s magnetic field, at the location of the wire, has a value 40 uyT, and is horizontal and due North. Given the free space permeability Mo =4mx 10-7 H/m, the _ resultant magnetic field would vanish 8 cm above the wire, if (a) I=16A (b) IT=12A (c) I=40A (a) 1=20A 38. A point charge q is imbedded at the centre of a sphere of linear dielectric material of dielectric constant K. The total bound charge on the surface of the sphere is (@) Q, =4/K (b) Q, =q(1-K)/K () Q =a/(K-1) (4) Q =a(K-1)/K 39. Suppose that a portion q of the total charge Q on a sphere is transferred to a nearby sphere which has_ been electrically neutral initially. If the two spheres are tiny enough to be treated almost as_ particles, then the electrostatic force between them, after the charge transfer, would be maximum when (@) q=Q/4 (b) q=Q?7/8 () q=Q/2 (a) q=207/9 ESGC-B-GPS/54A 40. A particle of charge q and mass m, moving with an initial speed v in the yz-plane, is subjected to uniform electric and magnetic fields of magnitudes E and B, respectively. If the magnetic field is in the x-direction, and the particle accelerates in the x-direction as well, then the magnitude of the acceleration is (a) q(E-vB)/m (b) q/E2 -v2B? Jm (c) q(E+vB)/m (a) q E? +v2B? /m 41. A particle of charge q and mass m is circulating in a plane which is at an angle of 45° to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B. The frequency of the revolution is (a) qB/(V8nm) (b) 4qB /(nm) (c) 2qB/(/3nm) (a) qB/(2nxm) 42. An unknown charge sits on a conducting solid sphere of radius L/(2n). If the magnitude of the electric field at a distance L/n from the centre of the sphere is E, then the net charge on the sphere is (@) 4ne9L7E (b) 4e9L7E/n (C) egl?E /n? (@) negE/L? 43. A long cylindrical wire of radius R carries a current I distributed uniformly over the cross-section. Let the magnetic field, due to the current J, be of magnitude B at the surface of the wire. The distances from the surface, outside and inside the wire, at which the magnetic field is of magnitude B/4, are respectively (a) 4Rand R/4 (b) 2R and 3R/4 (c) 2Rand R/2 (a) 3R and 3R/4 ESGC-B-GPS/54A [Penection = 44. A surveyor is using a magnetic compass at a distance d below a power line in which there is a_ steady current of 100 A. The free space permeability is to =4nx107’ T-m/A, and the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at the site is given to be 20 wT. The deflection of the compass needle due to power line would be as large as 9 degrees, if d is equal to Magnetic field due to power line Earth’s magnetic field (a) 2/™)m (b) 2x m (c) (20/n) m (d) 20x m 45. The magnetic flux through a coil is given as a function of time t as © p(t) =at—pt? where « and f are certain constants. If the induced e.m.f. is zero at an instant of time T, then at a later instant 37, this e.m.f. would be (a) 3a (b) 8a (c) 4a (d) 9a [ P.T.O. 46. A generator consists of 100 turns of wire, which is formed into a square loop of side 30 cm, and placed entirely in a uniform magnetic field of 4 T in magnitude. The maximum e.mf. induced when the loop is spun at 1000 revolutions per minute, about an axis perpendicular to the magnetic field, is (a) 1200n V (b) 600n V (c) 6nV (d) 12nV 47. Consider a point charge Q moving in a straight line, with a constant speed v, towards a small loop of area « which is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charge. The magnitude of displacement current through the loop, when it is at a very short distance x from the charge, can be expressed as (a) Qav/(2nx°) (b) Qx?v/(4a) (c) Qx?v/Qna) (2) Qav/(4nx) 48. A conducting loop of wire of resistance R and enclosing an area a is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field B for a short time interval T and then removed far away. The charge that flows through any cross-section of the wire, during the process, is (4) Q=aB/(RT) (b) Q=BT/(R) (c) Q=aBT/R (4) Q=aB/R ESGC-B-GPS/54A 10 49. In a region of space, consider a square loop of wire with vertices at (x=0, y=0), (x=a y=0), (x=a@ y=a) and (x = 0, y=q). If there is a magnetic field in this region, given by B= pt? y>2, where f is a constant and 2 is the unit vector along the z-direction, then the e.m.f. induced in the loop would be (a) e=-Bta> /2 (b) &=-Btat /4 (c) e=-Bt?a5/5 (a) e=-Bt?a?/3 50. A parallel-plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged by a time-varying current. Suppose there is a plane surface of area A/2, parallel to the plates, and situated symmetrically between them. If the charge on the capacitor varies as Q=Qp exp[-t/t, where Qy and 1 are constants, then the displacement current through this surface is (a) -(2Q9 /exp[-t/7 (b) -(Qo /21) exp[-t /1] (c) -2Qotexp[-2t /1] (4) —(Qo /1 exp[-2t /1 51. Consider the propagation of an electro- magnetic wave with a frequency in a certain piece of glass. Let the peak amplitude of the electric field in the wave be given by /)0 /2‏ + 2 = where 80 is the peak amplitude of the corresponding magnetic field, is the relative permeability, and c is the speed of light in vacuum. The dielectric constant for glass at the frequency vis (a) ‌ (b) (c) 52. An electromagnetic wave from a radio station passes perpendicularly through an open window of area 0:5 sq. m. Suppose that at the window, the electric field of the wave has a peak amplitude 0:02 V/m. The energy the wave would carry through the window during a 20-second commercial can therefore be expressed in terms of the free space permittivity 0 and the speed of light in free space, c, as ( 55103 ) 250106 (0 2806× 10 ° J (0) 50105 J ESGC-B-GPS/54A 53. Match List-I with 1451-11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Operation) (Naming/ Result) A. Vector product 1. self-product of two vectors vanishes B. Scalar product 2. commutative of a vector with itself, is called C. Vector product 3. when components of two vectors is of vectors are parallel D. Scalar product 4. not commutative of two vectors is Code : (a) A B 6 D 2 4 1 3 (b) A B ˆ D 2 1 4 3 (© A B € D 3 1 4 2 (0 A B 6 D 3 4 1 2 54. Let the force = +yj+zk). The 7 curl of F is 3701, ; a (^ (a) --- (2 + yj+zk) r2 (b) + xi +yj+zk) ( - 3701 (xi + yj+zk) (d) zero 11 (.7.. 55. Consider the following statements : 1. Gradient of a scalar function is a scalar. 2. Divergence of a vector field is a scalar quantity. 3e> “For solenoidal vector, the divergence of vector field is zero. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 56. Let cos@ sin®@ ~ | -sin® cos@ If A=(I-S)(I+S)"}, then the matrix S is [where I is identity matrix] r 0 -tan@/2) (a) | tan(@ /2) 0 4 eo eal (c) dle bas (a) EE /2) ra ad ESGC-B-GPS/54A 12 57. The eigenvalues of the matrix are (a) (c) te 6: 1 S=|0 10 120251 =1)0,2 (bic Onde 2 0, 1,2 (a) 1, 1,2 58. Consider that a planet has radius four times the radius of the Earth. If this planet has the same surface gravity as the Earth, then its escape speed is (a) (b) (c) (a) equal to the escape speed of the Earth two times the escape speed of the Earth three times the escape speed of the Earth four times the escape speed of the Earth 59. Conservative plate margins are marked by abundance of (a) (b) (c) (a) normal fault reverse fault strike-slip fault oblique-slip fault 60. Theoretical physics has unified the combination of two/three fundamental interactions together. The term ‘grand unified interaction’ means (a) (b) () (a) unification of electromagnetic and weak forces unification of electromagnetic, weak and strong forces unification of electromagnetic and strong forces unification of all fundamental forces 61. Consider 116 following statements regarding one-dimensional _ elastic collision of two particles with masses m, and my: 1. When m, = 702, the particles inter- change their velocities on collision. 2. When ] << 712 and the particle with mass 712 15 initially at rest, the latter begins to move and the particle with mass m, comes to rest. 3. When m, >> 702 and the particle with mass 712 is initially at rest, the velocity of the particle with mass m, remains unchanged on collision. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 2 and 3 (0 1 श्यात्‌ 3 ESGC-B-GPS/54A 13 62. A rigid body, in three space dimensions, is rotated by an angle 2 in clockwise direction around the Z-axis. The same body is then rotated by 3: 12 anti-clockwise direction around X-axis, subsequently the body is rotated by 5 in anti-clockwise direction around X-axis. If the coordinates to begin with are 2 represented by a column vector | Y |, 2 then the transformed coordinates after all the above-mentioned rotations are represented as -Z Y (a) (b) |2 -X 20 -Z -Z (0 |X (0) | ± -Y 63. In a solid sphere, the ratio of moment of inertia about its diameter to the moment of inertia about a tangent is (a) 6 (b) 0-600 (c) 1-667 (9) 3-500 64. A beam of particles with a proper lifetime of 5 microsecond moves through the laboratory at a speed of 2 × 108 ‎ 51, The average distance traversed by the particles before disintegration is (a) 34/5 > 102 () 543 × 102 7 ( 645 ×102 7 (0 10/5102 m (2.1.0. Consider the following statements regarding geophysical methods : 1. These methods are applied for 67. For the binomial distribution and its normal approximation with n=100 trials and probability of occurrence geophysical fields, namely gravity, p=0-5, the values of mean and magnetic, electromagnetic and standard deviation are seismic waves field. 2. The forward problem solution (a)°*50vand! 10 makes possible to predict geophysical data for geological (b) 60 and 10 structures. (c) 50 and 5 3. In inverse problems, model parameters are determined for a (a) 60 and 5 model using geographical data. Which of the statements given above are 68. Which one of the following is not an correct? example of discrete random variable? (a) Outcomes of coin tosses (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Outcomes of tossing a die (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Outcomes of finding electron in atom (c) 2 and 3 only (d) Outcomes of measuring radioactive alpha decay (d) 1 and 3 only 69. For asymmetric distribution, mode and mean are 5 and 8, respectively. The 66. Weighted least-square method is used wales bfeneding is (a) 5 (a) when all observations have same 6 accuracy () () 7 (b) when some observations have more ee precision but errors are equal a ; 70. Which one of the following is a linear differential equation? (c) when some observations have more (a) y’ =cot(y) accuracy than others y (b) yy’ = () yf? =x (d) when all observations have same precision and errors are equal (a) y’=x ESGC-B-GPS/54A 14 71. Consider the second-order linear 74. Match List-I with List-II and select the differential equation correct answer using the code given 2 below the Lists (symbols have their 29 64, WY ays 0 usual meanings) : dg? oak List-I List-II where a, and ay are constants. The (Name) (Form of equation) solution of this equation, when both roots of the auxiliary equation are real and equal, is 1 ow B. Laplace’s equation 2. V*y=— A. Diffusion equation 1. V2y =p h2 ot a, =(Ax+B)e”™, m is the root and aes " sid 4 C. Wave equation 3. V2yw=0 A and B are constants ; . : pee AW (b) y=(Ax+ Bx)e™, m is the root and D. Poisson’s equation 4. V“y= Py A and B are constants Code : (c) y=(Ax-B)e™, m is the root and A and B are constants (a) A B Cc D 2 3 4 1 (dq) y=(Ax- Bx)e™, m is the root and Renda (b) A B ¢ D an are constants 2 4 3 1 () A B Cc D 72. Poisson partial differential equation is 1 3 4 2 (a) linear and homogeneous (d) A B (0; D 1 4 3 2 (b) linear and inhomogeneous (c) non-linear and homogeneous 75. Which one of the following is the correct relation for Newton-Raphson formula? (d) non-linear and inhomogeneous F (Xn) (a) x =x, +2 n+1 n f (Xn) 73. The Wadati-Benioff seismic zone is lated t (x, re ro) (b) Xavi tn +E) (a) constructive plate margins e f(Xn) (b) destructive plate margins (CC) Xn41 = Xn -= fxn) (c) plate interiors Y (A) Sq41 = %q Ln) + (d) conservative plate margins e f (Xn) ESGC-B-GPS/54A 15 [PLO: 76. Using the linear interpolation method, 79. A hexagonal length of pipe used to the root of the function convey the rotatory movement to the 2 drill string and bit is called f(a x* -x-2=0 in the range 1<x<3 after the 2nd (a) kelly bushing iteration is (a) 1-667 (b) draw-works fa) (b) 1:7778 (c) kelly (c) 1-909 (d) riser (da) 2:121 77. Consid wag 80. In local magnetic survey, the latitude Sr = 19 429439 4.47 correction at magnetic equator is The value of the third forward difference (a) zero A°S, using Newton’s forward difference formula is (b) 5 nT/km (a) 4n+12 (c) OS nT/km (b) 6n+18 (c) 6n+12 (ad) 50 nT/km (a) 4n+8 78. The Euler method for solving ordinary 81. Which one of the following magneto- differential equations uses the slope at meters has the highest precision? the starting point of an interval to estimate the next value of the function. fa) Fluxgate magnetometer The Euler method is a (a) . ngs (a) first-order Runge-Kutta method (b) Proton precision magnetometer (b) second-order Runge-Kutta method (c) Optically pumped magnetometer (c) third-order Runge-Kutta method (d). fourth-order Runge-Kutta method (ad) Torsion head magnetometer ESGC-B-GPS/54A 16 82. What will be the approximate value of gravity anomaly of an_ infinite horizontal sheet of density 2-62 g/cm® and thickness 132 cm lying in the surrounding material of density 2-43 g/cm3? (a) 13274x10-® gal (b) 14489x 1078 gal (c) 582x107 gal (@) 1051x1078 gal 83. Which one of the following electrode arrays is the best to determine the depth and resistivity for flat-lying layered sedimentary rock structures? (a) Wenner (b) Schlumberger (c) Dipole-Dipole (ad) Pole-Dipole 84. What will be the total magnetic field for a given Larmor frequency of (9/7) kHz and gyromagnetic ratio for protons as 0:30 Hz/nT? (a) 25000 nT (b) 65000 nT (c) 56000 nT (d) 60000 nT ESGC-B-GPS/54A a 85. Which one of the following statements regarding the plot of real and imaginary components of response function with response parameter (Q) in electro- magnetic method is correct? (a) The real component is greater than the imaginary component for Q < 1. (b) The imaginary component is greater than the real component for Q>1. (c) The real component is greater than the imaginary component for Q > 1. (a) The real and imaginary components follow the same trend for all possible values of Q. 86. The resistivity of a clean, consolidated hydrocarbon bearing sandstone formation is 10 Qm. The rock porosity and formation water resistivity are 15% and 0:05 Qm, respectively. What will be the hydrocarbon saturation of the formation if the saturation exponent (n) is 2? (a) 42% (b) 21% (c) 58% (d) 29% [ P.T.O. 87. Match List-I with List-II and select the 89. Which type of reflection of seismic waves correct answer using the code given is shown in the diagram given below for below the Lists : ray paths in a model with three flectors? List-I List-Il ae cl (Log type) (Formation property/ \\ ii q j \ } content) Reflector 1 A. Microlaterolog 1. The interval transit \ \| Reflector 2 time of a sound | wave Reflector 3 B. Neutron log 2. Primarily responds (a) Primary reflections to the amount of hyd¥égen in the (b) First multiples formation (c) Peg-leg multiples C. Litho-Density log 3. Resistivity of the (da) Inter-bed multiples flushed zone D. Sonic log 4. Bulk density and 90. Consider the following statements photoelectric regarding seismic attributes analysis : absorption index of 1. In clastic sections, the lowering of the formation the acoustic impedance of a Code : reservoir often produces a high amplitude reflection called as (a) A B Cc D bright spot. : > . y 2. When the acoustic impedance of a (b) A B (0) D water-filled reservoir is appreciably 3 4 2 1 larger than that of the adjacent rock, the lowering of the acoustic (c) A B c 6D impedance by hydrocarbon 1 2 4 3 produces a dim spot. (a) A B c D 3. A horizontal gas-oil, gas-water or 1 4 2 3 oil-water contact may produce a distinct reflection, especially where the reservoir is thick, such 88. The differe: in t 1 time fe i ie gael eee eas es reflection is called as flat spot. reflection for two geophone locations, over a horizontal reflector is known as Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) moveout (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) dip correction (da) 1 and 3 only (b) checkout (c) stacking ESGC-B-GPS/54A 18 91. A seismic SH-wave is incident from 94. A geophysical signal is being recorded at medium-1 to medium-2 at the critical a sampling rate of 1 sample per 2 milli- angle (a). What is the ratio of wave second. The temporal variations in the speeds of medium-1 to medium-2? signal occurring at frequency around (a) sina 625 Hz will be (b) sin? o (a) faithfully reproduced from the i) tte (3 -a) sampled data 2 ma (b) reproduced with aliasing of higher Bee frequencies down to lower frequencies 92. A seismic ray traverses through a two-layered Earth medium. The velocity ° and density for the first layer are (c) reproduced but at a higher 2:7 km/s and 2400 kg/m°, and those frequency for the second layer are 3-0 km/s and 2300 kg/m, respectively. The reflection ? and transmission coefficients will be (a) non-reproducible from sampled data (a) 0:03 and 0-97, respectively (b) 0-97 and 0-03, respectively (c) 0-15 and 0:85, respectively (d) 0-85 and 0-15, respectively 95. Which one of heir Senshi is “sagen is correct for exhibiting aliasing effect in a signal? 93. A layer with a seismic wave velocity of 1500 m/s and a thickness of 100 m lies above another layer with a velocity of 3000 m/s. What is the expected crossover distance for the critically refracted waves? (a) Sampling rate > Nyquist rate (b) Sampling rate = 0 (a) 346-4 m (b) 5464 m (c) Sampling rate < Nyquist rate (c) 746-4 m (@) 946-4 m (d) Nyquist rate = 0 ESGC-B-GPS/54A 19 [P:T:0. 96. Which of the following pairs are not 98. The convolution 1 finite correctly matched? length sequences x, = {1 0, -2) and (Filter) (Filtering) Une 1 1. Low-pass filters : Reject high frequencies -2 2. High-pass filters : Pass high is 13 frequencies 3. Band-pass filters : Pass all the frequencies ) (1-1-22) 4. Band-reject filters : Reject all the frequencies © (10-22) Select the answer using the code given below. (0 (1-2-12) (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 only ti 99. The function (c) 1 and 2 only 8/0 = „ ' (0 1, 2 and 3 (0 t#0 97. The Fourier transform of the rectangular is known as function 3 is (a) , sin (2) (a) unit-step function () 26731 «sin (20) (0) Dirac-delta function (0) 26 32 «sin (2) (c) unit rectangular function (0) 3 -sin (20) (0) ramp function ESGC-B-GPS/54A 20 100. Which one of the following statements regarding age determination of rocks using radioisotopes is not correct? (a) Sr/Rb method is determining the age cambrian rocks. useful in of Pre- 40k measurements determine the age since the temperature of the rock dropped below 50 °C. (b) 189 to 166 ratio is indicator of paleo-temperatures in oceans. (c) (4) K/Ar method is useful in determining age from about 50 thousand years to about 3:5 billion years. 101. Which one of the following planets has no significant global magnetic field at present? (a) Jupiter (b) Uranus Mars () (d) Neptune 102. The angle between the ecliptic plane and equatorial plane is known as (a) angle of inclination (b) angle of obliquity (c) angle of declination (d) angle of azimuth ESGC-B-GPS/54A 21 103. The latitude correction in gravity data is minimum at (a) poles only (b) equator only (c) both poles and equator (ad) 45° latitude 104. The maximum tidal effect of the Sun in comparison to the Moon is only about (a) 80% (b) 45% (c) 30% (d) 10% 105. The magnetism acquired over a short time in a strong magnetic field at a constant temperature is known as (a) isothermal remanent magnetization (b) viscous remanent magnetization (c) chemical remanent magnetization (ad) anhysteretic zation remanent magneti- [ P.T.O. 106. Which one of the following minerals has 110. The empirical relationship of P-wave the highest magnetic permeability? velocity V (ft/s) as a function of age (T) : and depth z (ft) of the burial is (a) Magnetie V=K(eT)"®, This relationship is called (b) Pyrrhotite (c) Hornblende (a) Faust’s equation (b) Wryllie’s equation ‘d, uartz oe (c) Archie’s law 107. The inclination of geocentric dipole to the (d) Hubble’s law Earth’s rotation axis is about (a) 82° 111. The particle displacement (u) for a seismic wave travelling in the positive (b) 11-2° x-direction is u=Aexpfi(kx-ot)]. If there is no attenuation, the wave (c) 18-2° Pine number k is given by (a) 23-5° wa are 108. The approximate ratio of the Earth’s total hte magnetic field at the poles to that at the (c) k+ix equator is (4) o/y (3 a ee [where A = amplitude, w = frequency (b) 1:3 and c = wave speed] (oe) las 2 (a) 2:1 112. The seismic phase PKP indicates 109. The bulk modulus, shear modulus and (a) oe See eee bee yee bulk density of materials in a medium ae are 16 GPa, 13 GPa, 2:25 g/cm®, respectively. What would be the (b) P-wave reflected from the outer Poisson’s ratio of the medium? liquid core (a) 0:06 (c) P-wave reflected from the core- (b) 0:10 mantle boundary (c) 0:18 (d) P-wave reflected from the inner (d) 0:27 core ESGC-B-GPS/54A 22 113. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) At the Lehmann discontinuity, an abrupt decrease of P- and S-wave velocities by 3-4% is observed. (b) Below the Moho discontinuity, P-wave velocity exceeds 7-6 km/s. (c) In the low-velocity layer, the velocity decreases with increasing depth. (a) The core-mantle boundary is called as Gutenberg discontinuity. 114. The P-wave velocity becomes maximum inside the Earth near (a) Mohorovitié discontinuity (b) Conrad discontinuity (c) Gutenberg discontinuity (d) Lehmann discontinuity 115. The absence of S-waves beyond an epicentral distance of 105° and existence of P-wave shadow zone in the epicentral distance range 105°-143° on the Earth indicates that the Earth has a/an (a) mantle that creeps (b) solid outer core (c) silicate-rich crust (d) inner core within a liquid outer core ESGC-B-GPS/54A 23 116. Which one of the following statements regarding the radiogenic heat inside the Earth is correct? (a) Radiogenic heat flow is more in upper crust than rest of lithosphere. (b) Radiogenic heat flow is less in upper crust than rest of lithosphere. (c) Radiogenic heat flow is same in upper crust and rest of lithosphere. (@) No radiogenic heat flow occurs in crust. 117. The seismic wave path of reflected and refracted P-wave phases in the following diagram shows ra AS (a) PKCKP (b) PKiKP (c) PKIKP (ad) PKcKP [P.T.O. 118. Which one of the following is a correct 119. An intraplate earthquake in 2001 and representation of strike-slip tectonic reservoir-induced earthquake in 1967 fault? occurred in which two States of India? (a) Assam and Gujarat, respectively (a) (b) Arunachal Pradesh and_ Bihar, respectively (c) Kerala and Uttar Pradesh, respectively (b) (d) Gujarat and Maharashtra, respectively (c) 120. What will be the intensity value on the European Macroseismic Scale (EMS) 1998 to describe the effects of earthquakes as ‘very destructive’? (a) IX (a) (b) X (c) XI [where T = tension and P = compression] (da) XI ESGC-B-GPS/54A 24 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-B-GPS/54A 25 [ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-B-GPS/54A 26 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-B-GPS/54A 27 : SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ESGC-B-GPS/54A 28 25SS—2484