QP-CGeoScnstPrelExam-24-CHEMISTRY-190224

Combined Geo-Scientist (P) Examination, 2024 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : SBVP-B-CHE Test Booklet Series Serial No. 1006713 TEST BOOKLET Paper—II ( CHEMISTRY ) Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300 10. . You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. . Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. - You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO 1. Which among the following principal quantum numbers has/have five degenerate d-orbitals? (a) 2 (b) 3 only (c) 4 only (a) Both 3 and 4 2. Which one of the following statements related to radial distribution plots for hydrogen atom is not correct? (a) Most probable radius varies as 3s > 3p > 3d. (b) Most probable radius varies as ls < 2s < 3s, (c) Most probable radius varies as 2p <3p. (d) Most probable radius varies as 3s < 3p < 3d. 3. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents. the highest energy state? n 1 m, Ms (a) 4 ie) 0 + (b) 3 0 0 =” (c).3 1 1 +% (d) 3 2 1 -% 4. Which one of the following groups of elements contains true metals only? (a) Carbon, boron, silicon (b) Magnesium, aluminium, selenium -(c) Boron, carbon, nitrogen (da) Sodium, thallium, bismuth 5. The electronic configuration of an element A is [Xe]4f15d'6s? and that of an element B is [Xe]4 f36s?. The elements A and B are (a) transition element and lanthanide, respectively SBVP-B-CHE/51A (b) lanthanide and actinide, respectively (c) transition element and actinide, respectively (d) both lanthanides 6. The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their (a) atomic weight (b) atomic size (c) atomic number (d) atomic shape 7. Which one of the following represents the correct order of ionic radii among Vet La3*, Eu* and LuS*? Ghe* Stat <u cba (B) Tot <Buet < Lassa (et eittaSt <iuot yes (a) Lu3+ <Y3+ < Eu3t+ <La3t 8. Using Slater’s rule, the effective nuclear charge experienced by 3d-electron in titanium (atomic number 22) is (a) 22:0 (b) 7-53 (c) 5-14 (d) 3-65 9. Atomic size of nitrogen is less than carbon atom, yet carbon shows maximum catenation property while nitrogen does not. The reason for this is (a) lone pair-lone pair repulsions in N—N single bond make the bond weaker to allow catenation (b) catenation is not dependent on atomic size (c) carbon has poor multiple bonds formation ability (d) nitrogen exists as an inert gas and therefore does not react 10. Consider the following statements : 1. Sulfur has a higher ionization energy than phosphorus. 2. Sulfur has a_ lower ionization energy than phosphorus. 3. Sulfur has a lower electron affinity than chlorine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b)’ 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 11. Which one of the following represents the correct order of bond angle among H,0, H2Te, HaSe and H2S? (a) H,0>H,)S > H2Se > HgTe (b) H2S >H2Se > H20 > HgTe (c) H20>H,Se > H2S > HaTe (d) H,Te > H20>HS > H2Se 12. Consider the following statements : 1. On moving from left to right in the periodic table, the metallic character of elements decreases. 2. On moving from left to right in the periodic table, the oxides of elements become less basic. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 SBVP-B-CHE/51A Carbon is able to show allotropic forms due to (a) its smaller size (b) its higher electronegativity (c) its higher ionization enthalpy and unavailability of d-orbitals (da) catenation and pn—pn_ bond formation 14. A neutral atom of an element has two K, eight L and five M electrons. What will be the total number of p-electrons in the element? (a) 9 (b) 8 () 7 (d) 6 15. Consider the following statements : Statement-1 : An aqueous solution of NaH, PO, is acidic and that of NajHPO, is basic in nature. Statement-2 : An equimolar mixture of NaH, PO, and NajHPO, acts as a buffer. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-1 is not the correct explanation of Statement-—2 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-1 is the correct explanation of Statement-—2 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (d) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true [ P.T.O. 16. In SO3, one p-orbital and two d-orbitals are used in S=O 1-bond formation. However, all S=O bond lengths are identical. This is due to (a) involvement of equivalent hybrid orbitals in m-bonding (b) considerable polarity in bonds (c) delocalization of n-bonds in the molecule (d) ionic covalent resonance in the molecule 17. Consider the following statements regarding NF3 : 1. NF; has bond angle value much lower than tetrahedral bond angle. 2. NF 3 is a good Lewis base. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (da) Neither 1 nor 2 18. Which one of the following reactions is not possible between diborane and ammonia? (0):2B5H, + Ne (Excess) Low T B Hg 2NHg (b) BH, + NH3 ————> (BN) tye (Excess) High T a (c) BjgHe + 2NH3 Rae Aqueous medium B4Hjo + No + 4H d) BoHe + 2NHz ———— > B3N3H (da) BoHe 3 High T 3N3He SBVP-B-CHE/51A 19. For ZnS, a radius ratio (T2_2+ /Tg2-) of 0:52 suggests a coordination number, of 6 for both cation and anion. However, in reality, ZnS adopts a _ coordination number of 4:4. This is because (a) ZnS is a true covalent compound (b) ZnS is an ionic compound with considerable covalency (c) Zn2* is too small to occupy octahedral holes (ad) S?- ions are too large to provide higher coordination number to Zn2+ 20. Theoretically calculated lattice energy (using Born-Landé ~ equation) of hypothetical molecule NaCl, is -2180 kJ/mol while that of NaCl is -755 kJ/mol. (Both the molecules are assumed to be formed from elements in their standard states.) Yet NaCl is a stable molecule while NaCly does not exist. The reason for this is (a) dissociation energy of Cl, molecule is too high (b) second ionization energy of Na metal is too high (c) electron affinity of Cl atom is too low (d) Born-Landé equation cannot predict the correct lattice energy of these molecules 21. The solubility of an ionic compound in a solvent depends on (a) lattice enthalpy only (b) solvation enthalpy only (c) lattice enthalpy and solvation enthalpy both (d) ionization enthalpy of metal 22. Consider the following statements regarding Frenkel defect in solids : Statement-1 : Compounds having Frenkel defects have some covalent character. Statement-2 : Compounds having Frenkel defects have small positive ions and large negative ions, where small positive ions are highly polarizing and large negative ions are readily polarized. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (d) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true SBVP-B-CHE/51A 23. Two types of F atoms in (CH3)PF, are indistinguishable while in (CH3)2PF3, equatorially placed F atom is distinguishable from apical F atom with the help of 19 NMR spectroscopy. The reason for the same is (a) (CH3)PF, has a square pyramidal geometry while (CH3)2PF3 has a trigonal bipyramidal geometry (b) (CHg)PF, has all equivalent hybrid orbitals but (CH3)2PF3 has non- equivalent hybrid orbitals (c) inductive effect of methyl groups is higher in (CH3)2PF3 than in (CH3) PF, (d) two methyl groups pose higher rigidity in the molecule to allow pseudorotation in (CH3)2 PF3 24. The bond angle in H,O molecule is 104:5°.. The p-character in non- bonding set of orbitals will be [where cos(104:5°) = — 0:25] (a) 20% (b) 70% (c) 75% (d) 80% [ P.T.O. 25. The wave function ₹ = Poo + AP + expresses the phenomenon of (a) vibration (b) resonance (c) conjugation () orbital 26. Werner confirmed the presence of primary and secondary valencies in the coordination compounds CoCl, -6NH3, ০০০৫3 ` 5193 and ૦૦૯1૩ -4NH3 by (a) treating cold aqueous solutions of cobalt complexes with excess of silver nitrate solution (b) treating cold aqueous solutions of cobalt complexes with excess of barium nitrate solution (c) treating cold aqueous solutions of cobalt complexes with excess of barium chloride solution () treating cold aqueous solutions of cobalt complexes with excess of sodium nitrate solution 27. Which one among the following chelate rings will be more stable? (a) Four-membered chelate ring () Five-membered chelate ring (© Six-membered chelate ring (0) Seven-membered chelate ring SBVP-B-CHE/51A 28. Which one of the following is the correct IUPAC name of 17 [2194]? (a) (b) (0 (0) Lithium aluminium hydride Lithium aluminium tetrahydride Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate(III) Lithium tetrahydroaluminate(III) 29. Consider the following reaction : [Co(NH3)4Clp]* + 1- > [Co(NH3)3Cl3]+NHg How many isomers of the product complex are possible for the above reaction? (a) (b) (0) (0) 30. The effective atomic number of K,[Fe(CN),¢] complex is (a) (b) (© (0) 34 35 36 38 31. The formula for the coordination compound amminediaquachlorido- platinum(IV) tetrachloridoplatinate(II) is (a) ` [] (4113)(020) [0] (0) மரபான (% [PtCl(NH3)(H20)2]3[PtCl4]o () [PtCl(NH3)(H20)9]2[PtCl 4] 32. How many millilitres of 0:25 M solution of H,SO, will react with 10 mL of 0-25 M solution of NaOH? (a) 1 mL (0) 2:5 mL 66) 5 mL () 10 mL 33. Which one of the following represents the correct order of acidity among 002, SO, and SO3? (a) 50, > 52 > (0) 32 > 504 > 692 (c) 802 2 > 80‎ (8) 2 > 502 > 503 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 34. Which of the following statements regarding Ostwald’s dilution law is/are not correct? (Where 0 = 60870 of dissociation, k = equilibrium constant for dissociation, c= concentration of solution) 1. Activity coefficients are taken as unity. 2. Ostwald’s law is valid for strong electrolytes. 3. One may conclude = Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) () (c) (0) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 35. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) (b) (0) Water is strong electrolyte. The value of ionic product of water varies with temperature. The concentrations of H* and in 105 M HCI solution are same. The ionization constant and ionic product of water are same. (2.1.0. 36. The pH of a buffer solution containing 39. While performing the titration of KMnO, 60mL of 68૦૦૦૪ (0:2M) and with clear Mohr’s salt solution, a 4-0 mL of CH;COONa (0:2 M) solutions student obtained brown precipitate in the conical flask instead of a colourless will be approximately [where 7 £ 1 ಸ್ಮ (૦૪૩૦૦૦1) = 4-76; 1 ૧૦૦0 solution, much before the end point was pK, (113 089 = ¢ reached. What could be the possible log 3 = 0:48] source of error? (a) 6:0 (a) Reaction mixture was not heated to 60 °C (b) 5:13 (b) Fe?* in the Mohr’s salt solution hydrolyzed to precipitate brown (0 4:58 hydroxide (c) Reaction medium was not made (0 2:46 acidic (d) Too large quantity of KMnO, had been added to the Mohr’s salt 37. Which one of the following does not 300000 represent a correct expression for hydrolysis constant for the equilibrium reaction A~ +H,0 == - +HA? 40. In which one of the following titrations are metal-ion indicators used? (0 Ky =[OH ] (a) Acid-base titration (b) pK, =pKy ¬ 018 (b) Precipitation titration (0) Ky = /Ka (c) Complexometric titration (0) = [0 ] [8] () Redox titration 41. The total kinetic energy of 2 moles of an ideal gas at 300K is approximately compounds does not form primary ` (where R = 8-3 Jeo 170171) standard solution? 38. Which one among the following (a) 00 (a) 42003 (b) NaOH (b) 635021 (c) ZnO (0 7-5x10° J (d) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (0 1.9 103 J SBVP-B-CHE/51A 8 42. The root mean square velocity of one mole of a monatomic gas having molar mass M is U;ms. The relation between Urms and the average kinetic energy E of the gas is (@) tems = 7 (b) Urms - PE (6) tems = az (@) sms = Joe 43. Consider the following statements regarding kinetic energy of a gas : Statement-1 : At 25 °C, the average kinetic energy of hydrogen gas molecules is the same as that of helium gas atoms. Statement-2 : The kinetic energy of a gas depends on the temperature and does not depend on the nature of the gas. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (a) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true SBVP-B-CHE/51A 44. Consider the following van der Waals’ constant values of two gases X and Y : a b Gas kPa dm® mol~? dm? mol! x 657 0-04 ¥: 363 0-11 Which one of the following is correct with respect to the van der Waals’ constant values of X and Y in the table given above? (a) X is more easily liquefied than Y (b) Y is more easily liquefied than X (c) Ease of liquefaction does not depend upon the van der Waals’ constant a (d) Ease of liquefaction does not depend upon the van der Waals’ constant b 45. Consider the following statements regarding speed distribution of molecules : 1. The total area under the plots of a aaah = versus u is a measure of N)\ du the total number of molecules in the collection. 2. The curve at any temperature is parabolic near the origin. 3. The majority of molecules have speeds which cluster around the average value w in the distribution curve. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (da) 3 only [ P.T.O. 48. The work 46. At constant volume, the mean free path of a gas is (a) directly proportional to tempera- ture only (b) inversely proportional to pressure (c) directly proportional to both temperature and pressure (a) independent of temperature and pressure 47. Hydrogen molecule (H2) with molar mass 2g mol! effuses through a small hole at a temperature of 300 K and pressure of 5 torr. Under the same conditions, (CH,) with molar mass 16g mol! is also allowed to effuse. The ratio of the rate of effusion of hydrogen (ry,) and methane (Tou, ) is methane (a) 2:828:1 (b) 1: 2-828 (CGAL ts (a) 8:1 involved in a_ reversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas from p; and V; to Pr and Vy is given by Ls ad cot. Ve] NF R C. 7m 2. wW=-nCy mT; 1-(22)” Pi SBVP-B-CHE/51A 10 wre Par Bi Loy Pj Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (@) 1,2, 3 and 4 - Consider the following variables : 1. Dielectric constant 2. Surface tension 3. Energy 4. Enthalpy Which one of the following regarding classification of variables is correct? (a) 1 and 3 are intensive variables; 2 and 4 are extensive variables (b) 1 and 2 are intensive variables; 3 and 4 are extensive variables (c) 1 and 4 are intensive variables; 2 and 3 are extensive variables (da) 2 and 3 are intensive variables; 1 and 4 are extensive variables 50. Consider the following statements regarding compressibility factor (Z) : Statement-1 : If a system at state A is converted to state B by two methods (reversible compression and irreversible compression), then the change in internal energy of the system is the same in both the processes. Statement-2 : Change in internal energy is a state function. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (ad) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true 51. A 0:04 mole sample of a monatomic gas at 1:00 atm pressure and 298K expands isothermally and _ reversibly from an initial volume of 1-0 L to 10:0 L. It is then heated to 500 K, followed by isothermal compression to 1:00 L and finally cooled to 25 °C. The AU for the overall process is (a) 228 J (c) zero (b) -228 J (d) 456 J 52. Consider the following statements : Statement-1 : The temperature of a perfect gas is unchanged by Joule-Thomson expansion. SBVP-B-CHE/51A 11 Statement-2 : For a perfect gas, Joule-Thomson coefficient (u) is zero. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-—2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (d) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true 53. In a free expansion process (a) the work done is zero and the heat transfer is zero (b) the work done is zero but the heat flows into the system (c) work is done by the system but the heat transfer is zero (d) work is done on the system and the heat flows out of the system Consider the reactions : X()+Y(@)—> XY); AH, =akJmol?! X()+Z(@) > XZ); AHy =bkJ mol! following hypothetical AH for the reaction Y ) + XZ(g) > XY) +Ze) will be (a) (a+b) kJ mol~! (b) a kJ mol"! (c) b kJ mol"! (a) (a-b) kJ mol™} [ P.T.O. 57. Consider 55. The maximum efficiency of an engine operating between 127 °C and 27 °C is (a) 78:7% (b) 25% (c) 21:25% (ad) 75% 56. Consider the following reaction : Hy@) +30. @) > H,00) The values of AH and AG are -290kJ and -230kJ, respectively, at 300 K. What will be the value of AG at 320 K, assuming that there is no variation of AH and AS with temperature? (a) 0-2 kJ (b) -532 kJ (c) -226 kJ (d) -49kJ the following statements regarding change of enthalpy (AH) and change of entropy (AS) for a chemical reaction at any temperature T: 1. If AH is negative and AS is positive, the reaction will be spontaneous at all temperatures. 2. If AH is positive and AS is negative, the reaction will be spontaneous at low temperatures. 3. When both AH and AS are positive, the reaction will proceed spontaneously at high temperatures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only SBVP-B-CHE/51A 12 58. 60. The Consider the following reactions : 1. Hy@)+ A) +H,00); A,H = -285°8 kJ mol7! 2a Sale) +On(@) > NO, 6); A,H = +33-2 kJ mol"! Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above reactions? (a) Reaction 1 is endothermic and non- spontaneous at all temperatures Reaction 2 is exothermic and spontaneous at all temperatures (c) Reaction 2 is endothermic and non- spontaneous at all temperatures Reaction 1 is exothermic and spontaneous at all temperatures (b) (a) 59. The experimental results of colligative properties of solutions are often found to differ from the calculated values due to 1. association of the concerned solute 2. dissociation of the concerned solute 3. the solutions being often non-ideal Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (da) 1, 2 and 3 vapour pressure of pure water decreases from 24 torr to 23 torr on adding x amount of a solute (molar mass 480g mol~') in 150g of water. The value of x is (a) 114g (c) 167g (b) 128g (d) 1124¢ 61. Consider a solution of 50 g of an enzyme dissolved in water to give 2 dm? of solution at 27 °C. The osmotic pressure of the given solution is (where molar mass of enzyme = 90000g mol! and R=0:083 dm® bar K~! mol7}) (a) 0-49 kPa (b) 0-69 kPa (c) 0:89 kPa (d) 1:09 kPa 62. Consider the following values of normal boiling point and molal boiling point elevation constant for some solvents : Solvent | Normal boiling | Molal boiling point point elevation constant K) Kp Kkg mol” : 373-15 0:52 Ethanol 351:5 1-20 Which one of the following solutions would result in the greatest boiling point elevation? (a) 0:05 M lithium chloride in water (b) 0-05 M lithium chloride in ethanol (c) 0-05 M magnesium chloride in water (a) 0-05 M magnesium chloride in ethanol SBVP-B-CHE/51A 63. When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a volatile solvent, the depression in the freezing point is (a) inversely proportional to _ the molality of the solution (b) directly proportional to the molality of the solution (c) independent of the amount of solute present in the solution (a) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent present Consider the following statements regarding Henry’s law : 1. The Henry’s law constant depends on the nature of the gas. CO, is more soluble than Op. 3. The Henry’s law constant does not depend on the nature of the solvent. 4. The Henry’s law constant depends on the temperature. (The Henry’s law constant values of CO, and Og in water at 298K are 301x10°kPakgmol7! and 7-92 x 10+ kPa kg mol~!, respectively) Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (a) 3 and 4 [ P.T.O. 67. The 65. The value of the Henry’s law constant of 02 in water at 298K is 8.0 × 105 kPa kg 7101-1. When its partial pressure is 20 kPa, the molar concentration 102 in water at 25 °C is (0) 25 mmol 612 3 (0) 0:25 mmol 3 (© 0.4 >. 1073 kg mol} ( 4x10 mol kg 66. A conductivity cell was calibrated using 0:1 M 1001 solution and the measured resistance was 100Q. The resistance of the same cell when filled with 0:02 M KCI solution is 500 . The molar conductivity of 0:02 M [0] solution will be (the conductivity of 0.1 M KCl solution is 1:3S 0077) (0 130 8 2 mol"? (0) ` 130.0 × 104 Scm? 70178 (© 130-0 $ 7001-1 (0 2600 8 2 170171 molar conductivities at infinite dilution Aj, HNO, CH3COOH and ೫೬೫೦, are 421-2 Scm? 70173, 391-05 cm? 7101-1 and 121-5Scm? 770173, respectively. The 67, for CH;COONa will be (0) 515 Scm? 7101-1 (b) 91:3 Scm? 1011 (© 151-5 Scm? 7101-1 (0) 201.0 Scm? 7701-1 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 14 69. Consider 110 68. The correct order of molar conductance at infinite dilution of LiCl, NaCl and KCl is (a) LiCl > NaCl > KCI (b) KCl > NaCl > LiCl (© NaCl > KCl > 1401 (0 KCl > LiCl > NaCl following statements regarding ionic molar conductivities : Statement-1 : With increasing dilution, the conductivity keeps on increasing. Statement-2 : With increasing dilution, the degree of ionization of weak electrolytes increases, and the mobility of ions also increases. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (‌) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true 71. Consider the Consider the following regarding ionic molar conductivities : statements Statement-1 : The Walden’s rule holds good for tetramethylammonium ion and picrate ion. Statement-2 : The effective radii of tetramethyl- ammonium ion and picrate ion in the solvent are larger and very different from the crystallographic radii of the ions. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false (ad) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true following statements regarding movement of ions : Lf Tonic mobility is inversely proportional to the potential gradient. 2. Ionic mobility is directly proportional to the ionic speed. SBVP-B-CHE/51A 15 3. Transport number of the ions is inversely proportional to the ionic speed. 4. Sum of the transport numbers of ions in a solution is equal to one. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and4 72. The following graph shows the variation of molar conductance with the concentration of a/an Molar conductance —> ve —> (a) strong acid (b) weak acid (c) buffer (ad) ethanol [ P.T.O. 73. Consider the following graph showing the 74. The term Avc in the Onsager equation variation of molar conductance with A =A” —(A+ BA®”)J/e represents the concentration : (a) decrease in molar conductivity due to the electrophoretic effect (b) decrease in molar conductivity due to the asymmetry effect 2 (c) increase in molar conductivity due to the electrophoretic effect Molar conductance —> (d) increase in molar conductivity due to the asymmetry effect Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the above graph? 75. The conductivity of 0-001 M dichloroacetic acid solution is 3:88x 10-5 Scm~!. The molar conduc- tivities at infinite dilution for HCl, (a) Plot 1 can be extrapolated to obtain the molar conductance at infinite dilution of weak electrolytes. NaCl and CHCI,COONa (sodium dichloroacetate) are 426 S cm? mol}, (b) Plot 1 can be extrapolated to obtain . 126 Scm? mol7! and 88 S cm? mol"}, the molar conductance at infinite respectively. The degree of dissociation dilution of strong electrolytes. and dissociation constant of dichloro- acetic acid will be respectively (c) Plot 2 can be extrapolated to obtain the molar conductance at infinite (a) 0:2 and 1:1x10~° dilution of strong electrolytes. (b) 0-1 and 1-1x 10-6 (da) Both plots 1 and 2 can be extrapolated to obtain the molar e ee ee (c) 0-2 and 1:1x10~+ conductance at infinite dilution of strong and weak electrolytes, respectively. (@) 0-1 and 1-1x1075 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 16 76. The conductivity and molar conductance 78. Consider the following table showing of CaF, at 18°C are 4x10°° Scm™! and 200Scm?2 mol}, respectively. The Kg, for CaF, will be (a) 40x1078 (b) 3-2x107!! (c) 80x107}2 (a) 2-:0x107!? 77. In the given plot of conductometric titration of CH3;COOH vs. NaOH, the area around point (1) is curved due to (1) Conductance ——> Volume of NaOH —> (a) neutralization of weak acid with weak base (b) hydrolysis of the salt CH;3COONa (c) suppression of dissociation of CH3COOH (a) poor conductance of CH;COOH SBVP-B-CHE/51A 17 the apparent transport numbers of Cd?* ion in CdI, solutions of different molalities : m/mol kg et t, 0-05 0-40 0-1 0:36 1:0 0:30 2:5 0-10 40 0-06 5:0 0-12 8-0 -0:40 10:0 -0:60 Which one of the following inter- pretations is correct with respect to the table given above? (a) In dilute solutions, Cd2* ion migrates towards the anode and I” migrates towards the cathode and vice versa in concentrated solutions. (b) In dilute solutions, Cd?* ion migrates towards the cathode and I” migrates towards the anode and vice versa in concentrated solutions. (c) In dilute solutions, Cd2+ ion migrates towards the cathode and I” migrates towards the anode and in concentrated solutions, Cd2* ion migrates towards the cathode and CdI2- migrates towards the anode. (a) In dilute solutions, Cd?* ion migrates towards the anode and I” migrates towards the cathode and in concentrated solutions, Cd2*+ ion migrates towards the anode and CaI2- migrates towards the cathode. [ P.T.0. 79. The transport number of ions in a 1:0 M solution of AgNO3 was determined using a 0-3 M solution of Cd(NO3) in the moving boundary method. When a current of 15 mA was passed for 30 min, the boundary swept through a volume of 0-1cm%. The transport number of Ag* is (Faraday’s constant = 96500 C mol"}) (a) 0:36 (b) 0°64 (c) 0-71 (d) 0-83 80. Which of the following electrolytes should be given to a chemist to be used as an indicator electrolyte in the determination of the transport number of Ag* in AgNO, solution using the moving boundary method? (a) Cd(NO3)2 (b) LiNO3 only (c) CdCl, only (d) Both LiNOz and CdCl, SBVP-B-CHE/51A 18 81. Consider the following statements regarding structures of naphthalene and biphenylene : 1. The C1-C2 bond order is more than C2-C3 bond in naphthalene. 2. The C2-C3 bond order is more than C1-C2 bond in naphthalene. 3. The C1-C2 bond order is more than C2-C3 bond in biphenylene. 4. The C2-C3 bond order is more than C1-C2 bond in biphenylene. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 82. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the given carboxylic acids is (a) 4-acetylbenzoic acid < 4-cyano- benzoic acid < 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid (b) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < 4-acetyl- benzoic acid < 4-cyanobenzoic acid < benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid (c) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < benzene- 1,4-dicarboxylic acid < 4-acetyl- benzoic acid < 4-cyanobenzoic acid (d) 4-cyanobenzoic acid < 4-acetyl- benzoic acid < _ benzene-1,4- dicarboxylic acid < 4-hydroxy- benzoic acid 83. The major products [] and [7] formed in 84. The correct decreasing order of reactivity the following reactions are towards’ ionization under acidic conditions of the following compounds ‘es 1 MHClag (one equiv.) ~", N \ is " pe CH3 N- N 70 / N Ts! Ts I II 17 H MHCI,, (one equiv.) (0 ‏ 1 > eH]‏ | 11 22 <1 )0( = H ( 272 77 > 7‏ / Co ‌ ‏ \ (a) [205 ஓ (୩) ೫೬೫೬1‏ A ‏ H CH,‏ 85. The products of which of the following reactions are aromatic in nature? H H ( 1 19 > 0-[ ‎ ¥ ( ) ~ “° N N \ | CH 3 H 3 1 ) ‌ 21/61 2 Li N ( N ‎ | | 6 -( > -( 8 NZ 77 EN | (a) I, 7 and IV only H ‎ H (0) II and II only Sy, No ) (0) [2] = CO [17] (0 7 and IV only N 1 x 3 ‎ (0) I, 7, 71 and 77 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 19 [ P.T.O. 86. Match the pair of compounds from Column-I with their stereochemical relationship with each other from Column-II and select the correct answer using the code given below 106 Columns : CHO 3 CHO 9 Ste OH Br——H ‎ 1 P Column-I Column-II (A) M and N 1. Identical (B) M and O 2. Diastereomers (C) M and P 3. Enantiomers (D) N and P Code : (a) A B € D 2 3 2 1 (b) A B 0 D 3 3 1 2 (© A B 0 2 1 3 1 2 பிடதி 18 ୭୭୭୭ 3 1 2 1 87. Which one of the following has an achiral stereoisomer? (a) 2,3-Dibromo-2,3-dimethylbutane (b) 2-Bromo-4-methylpentan-3-ol ( 2,3-Dibromopentane (d) 1,2-Dibromocyclobutane SBVP-B-CHE/51A 20 88. The structure which is consistent with (& Z)-3,6-dimethyloct-3-ene its IUPAC name is ~~~ ১৯২৯ . ‎ (0) 89. Cholic acid, a major constituent of bile, has the structure as shown below. What are the positions of labeled 1, 7 and 71 hydroxyl groups, respectively, in their chair conformations? Cholic acid (a) Equatorial, equatorial and axial (b) Equatorial, equatorial and equatorial (c) Equatorial, axial and axial (d) Axial, axial and axial 90. In which one of the following compounds, the anti-conformer is more stable than gauche conformer? (a) HO ~ OH Br (b) ୦୬୪୮. ‘9 Be (0 93. The major products [20] and [Y] formed in the following reactions are 91. The increasing order of 8‎ solvolysis reactivity in ethanol of the following M Me TsCl (1 equiv.) [2] substrates is Pyridine Ol HCH | 8 17 7 cl 1 | a= 7 HCH, | HCH, Me. Me Li I IV ( 7 < 77 < 7⁄7 < 7 571. [1] NaSPh (1 equiv.) [] THF, 0 °C to RT (b) 77 < 7 < 77 < 77 ( ‎ < 7 < 7 8 hee Bs ‌ 7171757 7 (0) [>] = OTs Me Br 92. The number of Sy 2 processes involved in [] = 2 the mechanism of the following reaction Phs 8 116. Me OTs is ౯౨౮౩ ` << © 3 i) ‎ (0) [20 i SPh 2 ii) Heat Br = 0 3867 Me 2 ন அங்க 0) three (0 [>] 8 Me Br ) four Phs i 11 [ P.T.O. () five 21 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 94. The major products [20] and [ ] formed in the following reactions are క్వాం F 1526 F [x] = 9 ‌‏ (a) [+] = . :‏ [+] = $ 3 ‏ nee‏ OEt 06 FAC. F ‎ 5 95. The relative Sy2 reactivity order of the following substrates is ‏ ( IV‏ 777 11 ; ( 77 < 777 < 7⁄7 < 7 (b) 27/7/717 ( 1> [77 > ‎ > ( 1 < 7 < 777 > 77 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 22 96. Which of the following statements are correct about the following reactions? Addition +HX oe ట్రై / Elimination / 1. Addition is favoured at low temperature whereas elimination is favoured at high temperature. 2. Addition is favoured at high temperature whereas elimination is favoured at low temperature. o> At high temperature, AG is positive for addition reaction whereas AG is negative for elimination reaction. 4. At high temperature, AG 15 negative for addition reaction whereas AG is positive for elimination reaction. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) land 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (0 2 and 4 97. The major products formed in E2 and Sy2 reactions of the substrate [2] with sodium methoxide, respectively, are AWN Br [>] (a) (Z)-3-methylhex-3-ene and (3R,4R)- 3-methoxy-4-methylhexane (0) (Z)-3-methylhex-3-ene and (3R,4S)- 3-methoxy-4-methylhexane (9 (£)-3-methylhex-3-ene and (3R,4S)- 3-methoxy-4-methylhexane (‌) (E)-3-methylhex-3-ene and (3R,4R)- 3-methoxy-4-methylhexane 98. In which one of the following elimination reactions, deuterium is not retained in the alkene formed as the major product? NaOEt EtOH (b) cl KOBut H t-BuOH H Me = (c) Lt c SoH Heat H Ph Ph 99. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the given reaction? Bias, ah NaOMe > (a) The major product formed is J and is called Zaitsev product. (b) The major product formed is I and is called Hofmann product. (c) The major product formed is IJ and is called Zaitsev product. (d) The major product formed is IJ and is called Hofmann product. SBVP-B-CHE/51A 100. Which of the following substrates do not form trimethylamine as one of the products in its Hofmann exhaustive methylation method? H I ri mI (a) I, Zand I (b) I and II only (c) Il, Vand V (a) IV and V only 101. Which of the compounds in Pair A and Pair B are more reactive towards elimination reaction using NaOEt/EtOH? Pair A Pair B ii FE r ii Br IT IV (a) Pair A: I is more reactive than I Pair B : Illis more reactive than IV (b) Pair A: I is more reactive than I Pair B : IVis more reactive than J . (c) Pair A: II is more reactive than J Pair B : Illis more reactive than IV (d) Pair A: IJ is more reactive than I Pair B : IVis more reactive than III [P.T.0. 102. The major products [20] and [ ] formed in the following reactions are Br 0 11 . => 170 11. 11 () [2] " [1] ‎ H 0 H H ‎ [11 Ah (8) [2] =[ = AA 103. Match the reactions from Column-I with the major products formed from Column-Il and select the correct answer (b) [>] =[*] (0 [>] = using the code given below the Columns : Column-I Column-IT ^. 1, 3,3-Dimethyl- 5 butan-1-ol i) 3286, THF ii) 9202, NaOH . ~~ 2504, 20 2. 2,3-Dimethyl- butan-2-ol 3. 3,3-Dimethyl- butan-2-ol 4. 2,3-Dimethyl- butan-1-ol Code : (a) A B € 2 4 1 (b) A B € 4 3 2 (© A B ¢ 3 1 2 () A B 3 4 1 SBVP-B-CHE/51A 24 104. Consider the following statements : Statement-1 : The peroxide effect is observed for the addition of HBr to alkene but not for the addition of HCl or HI. Statement-2 : Either of the two propagation steps for the addition of HCl or HI to alkene is endothermic in nature. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1 ( Statement-1 18:25. correct . but Statement-2 is incorrect (a) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct 105. The reagents [X] and [Y] required to carry out the following transformations are 006 2146 (a) [>] = (b) [2] = (0 = ee m-CPBA and [Y] = 0,008 CH3CO3H and [Y] = m-CPBA 1150, /NaOH and ] CH3CO3H and [] = 1202 /NaOH CH,CO3H () [>] = 106. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the following reaction? Dibenzalacetone + 1 mol Diethylmalonate = Monocyclic product (a) The product is formed by two successive Michael additions. (b) The product is formed by Michael addition followed by intra-aldol condensation. (c) Monocyclic product does not give the test of unsaturation with bromine. The double bond equivalence of monocyclic product is twelve. (a) 107. Classify the following substituted styrenes with respect to their preferred mode of addition polymerization and select the correct answer accordingly : Om Ope (a) I and JV undergo anionic polymerization while IJ and I undergo cationic polymerization II and IV undergo cationic polymerization while IJ and I undergo anionic polymerization (b) I, Il and IV undergo cationic polymerization while IJ undergoes anionic polymerization (qd) I and IV_ undergo cationic polymerization while IJ and I undergo anionic polymerization SBVP-B-CHE/51A 25 108. Match the reactions from Column-I with the stereochemical outcome of the products described in Column-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Columns : Column-I Column-II Br 1. Formation of > diastereomers Formation of racemic mixture Formation of a Sl Br2 as cC. C Bra 3. meso-isomer a io Bry 4. Formation of constitutional isomers Code : (a) A B 94 D 2 1 4 3 (b) A B c D ys 4 1 3 (c) A B %) D 3 2 + 1 (a) A B S D 4 2 1 2 109. Which one of the following statements is correct for the indicated reaction? Major product fy ae JCD “OO NaOEt ae I I (a) The major product formed is I and the reaction proceeds through addition-elimination pathway. The major product formed is IJ and the reaction proceeds through addition-elimination pathway. The major product formed is I and the reaction proceeds through elimination-addition pathway. The major product formed is I and the reaction proceeds through elimination-addition pathway. (b) (c) (a) [ P.T.O. 110. The major product formed in_ the following reaction is F3 i) HNO3/HSO, ii) NaOMe/MeOH Me i CF3 NO, 1 Me M * rg NO, (c) (a) No, cl OMe 111. The intermediate [X] and the major product [Y] formed in the following reaction are OMe Br NaNH + PhCH,CN ee [X]—>[Y] 3 H2OMe Me Me Ph (a) [xX] = a ‘CN MeOCH, CN CH,0Me Me Me CN io) (b) (X\= “ore a: MeOCH, CN CH,0CH3 Me CN Me Ph Ph (c) [X]= 4 [Y] = ‘CN CH,0Me CH,0OMe OMe CN OMe CN = Ph = (a) 1X] 5 [¥] Pg CH,0Me CH,0Me SBVP-B-CHE/51A 26 112. The major product formed in the following reaction is HN S NaNH, NZ NH Toluene NH (a) SS | nZ NH, = (b) | an N~ 2 Hg oo (c) HN l 2 i H H N (a) at Go N 113. The correct sequence of reactions to -accomplish the multi-step synthesis of 1-isobutyl-2-methylbenzene benzene is from Benzene ———>, 1-Isobutyl-2- methylbenzene (a) [1] (CH3)2CHCOCI / AIC14; [2] HCl, Zn(Hg)/heat; [3] dilute H,SO,; [4] CHCl, AlCl; [5] fuming H2SO, [1] CHCl, AICI,; [2] dilute HjS0,; [3] (CH3))CHCOCI / AICI; [4] HCl, Zn(Hg)/heat; [5] fuming H2SO, (b) (c) [1] (CH3)2CHC1/AICl; [2] fuming H,SO,; [3] CHCl, AICI,; [4] dilute H,SO4 (d) [1] (CH3)2CHCOCI /AIC1,; [2] HCl, Zn(Hg)/heat; [3] fuming H,SO,; [4] CHCl, AICl,; [5] dilute H,SO, 114. The major products [X] and [Y] formed in the following reactions are (~ H,SO, [3] Me (a) 00 [] ® ‌ ) Me (b) are | Me Me [}] a 115. The major product formed in the following reaction is ‎ Ts SBVP-B-CHE/51A 116. The major products [X] and [Y] formed in the following reactions are [20 [7] [ ?.1.0. 117. The reasonable carbocation inter- mediates which are likely to form in the reaction mechanism of the following transformation are .OH + M Ph H Me & Ph g Ph \ Me H Me IT IIT ® H Me Me IV V (a) I, I and IV (b) Il, Vand V (c) I, and IV (a) I, Il and V 118. Which substrate in each pair is expected to be faster in the indicated reaction? Pair A: PhS(CHy)3Cl_— PhS(CH,)4Cl iL IT Solvolysis in methanol Ph Ph Pair B: cr om PhO,C O2Ph I Iv Solvolysis in acetic acid I is more reactive than II whereas III is more reactive than IV (a) I is more reactive than IJ whereas IV is more reactive than III (b) II is more reactive than I whereas III is more reactive than IV (c) II is more reactive than J whereas IV is more reactive than III (a) SBVP-B-CHE/51A 28 119. The relative rate of solvolysis in aqueous acetone of the following tertiary p-nitro- benzoate esters is Me Me 2 Kame Me % Me r NO, NO, I ~e IT Mens Mee NO, NO, I Iv (a) I< 0<M<IV (b).1<IV<0< lM () W<I<M<0 (a) I<I<WV<Il 120. Arrange the following three nitrogen mustards in decreasing order of reactivity towards their possible use as alkylating agents for clinical purpose : (a) (b) I>I>I (c) M>I>I (ad) >>I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SBVP-B-CHE/51A 29 [ P.T.O. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SBVP-B-CHE/51A 30 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SBVP-B-CHE/51A 31 [ P.T.O. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kkk SBVP-B-CHE/51A 32 SB24— 10764