QP-ESEP-25-ELECTRICAL-ENGINEERING-P-II-090625

Engineering Services (P) Examination - 2025 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : ASNP-T-ELEN Test Booklet Series 6 Z en TEST BOOKLET i or) tO QD = ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300 . You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS . IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. . Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. . This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. . You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . All items carry equal marks. . Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. . Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. . Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO () 292192 0119611005 0 - 10161153 1. What is the value of b such that the 4. Let D be the region bounded by the system of homogeneous equations closed cylinder x? + 2 = 16, 2-0 2 + /+ 22 = 0 2 = 4, and = 32 + 62 7 + >£, then by × + # + 32 = 0 divergence theorem 4x+3y+bz=0 3 has non-trivial solution? 0 16 (a) 4 (a) 467 ) (0) 647 8 (0 ( 847 @, 39 ‎ 96% 2. The orthogonal trajectories of 1006 5. In the Fourier series expansion of the hyperbolas function 2 - /2 = 4 () = 11, - < % < 7 nah the value of the Fourier coefficient a, is 3 ( 2 + 2-0 (a) 3 1 (0) × + | = ¢ (b) 25 (+ =c 2 © xy ( oo 22 () > + ~ + 2× = ¢ 2 (0) 5‎ 3. The value of the integral × , where Cis the curve defined by 6. The partial differential equation formed by the elimination of arbitrary function 3 7 from x=3cost, y=3sint, 0<t< 3 2 = f(x? - 2) is 19 (a) 20 () xp+yq=0 (b) 24 yp-xq=0 (c) 27 © +2¶ = 0 (0 31 (0 yp+xq=0 ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 2 7. 1006 solution of the differential equation (x? - y? —27)p + 2xyq = 222 is = a, the other solution is 2 10. The value of the integral | 6 2365, where C is the arc of the circle |z|=2 from 6 = 0 to 6 = 7, is 3 (a) (b) (c) (0) 2242-23 = ‎ 2 + /2 = 22 × + { + 2 = 2 × + { + (1 ¬ 8)2 = 0 8. The solution of the differential equation is (0) (0) (9 (9 - =q+y? + + 3 81% 3 3 x ‌ = >] . Ze ‎ + oe + 3 ) 2 = + ‌ + 3 3 9. The solution of the differential equation is (a) (b) ( (0) 22702 = × + ¥ 2 3 Z=—(a-x)?2+=(y+a)2+b ge 9‎ മട (ടോറി + 5 (# = ୩13 +b 2 3 = = ( + ×} 2 + = ({ + @} 2 +® er 3005 = 2 = +b ASNP-T-ELEN/59A ‏ ‏ 35- The value of the integral‏ .11 )4+ 27 where C is |z|= 1, is (a) 0 (9 271 (0) > 12. The mode and modal ordinate of normal distribution respectively are 1 (a) wand ‌ 14 1 = and —— ) 2 .07 (2.1.0. 13. The theoretical density of a metallic solid 16. A very weak form of magnetism that is non-permanent persists only while an external field is being applied. It is induced by a change in the orbital motion of electrons due to an applied magnetic field. This form of magnetism is called nA VoN,’ where n is number of atoms associated with each unit cell, A is atomic weight, Vo is volume of the unit cell. N, will represent crystal structure is given by p = (a) force in newton (b) number of particles (c) Avogadro’s number (a) number of turns 14. The value of packing fraction for face- centred cubic (FCC) structure will be nearly (a) 0-55 (b) 0-65 (c) 0-75 (aq) 0-85 15. The total core loss of a specimen of silicon steel is found to be 1500 W at 50 Hz. Keeping the flux density constant, the loss becomes 3000 W, when the frequency is raised to 75 Hz. The eddy current loss at 75 Hz will be (a) 1.25 kw (b) 1-50kW (c) 1-75kW (a) 2:25kW ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 4 (a) (b) (c) ferromagnetism ferrimagnetism paramagnetism (a) diamagnetism 17. The magnetic moments of diamagnetic material are mainly due to (a) (b) () (a) orbital angular momentum of the electrons electron spin angular momentum of the electrons only nuclear spin angular momentum of the electrons only both electron’ spin angular momentum and nuclear’ spin angular momentum of the electrons 18. The magnetic flux density on the surface of an iron face is 1:6T, which is a typical saturation level value for ferromagnetic material. If the value of is 4nx 107’ H/m, the force density on the iron face will be nearly 21. Which one of the following statements is not correct for Fermi level? (a) When all the electrons have been accommodated in a metal atom, the number per level drops abruptly to zero, at an energy 6 2 (a) 0-25x10° N/m value E, called Fermi level. é 6 2 fe) 10x10" 8 ie (b) The magnitude of Fermi level increases with the number of electrons per unit volume of the (d@) 4-0x10° N/m? metal. (c) 2-0x10° N/m? (c) The magnitude of Fermi level decreases with the number of electrons per unit volume of the 19. When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, there are small changes in its dimensions. The phenomenon is known as mtel. (a) deformation (d) The extra electrons can only be eas. accommodated in the higher energy (b) polarization levels. (c) magnetostriction (d) magnetization 22. Electrons are emitted with zero velocity for a certain metal surface for 20. In Fe3,0,, each cubic unit cell contains c=3x108 m/s and A= 10-10 m, when 8 Fe?* and 16 Fe** ions, the unit cell edge length is 0-839 nm and Bohr magnetons/unit cell is 32 and the value of Bohr magneton is 9.27 10724 A-m?/Bohr magneton. The saturation magnetization will be it is exposed to radiations of ) = 6800 A. The threshold frequency of the metal will be nearly (a) 2-6x10!4 Hz (a) 1x10° A/m (b) 2-8x 1014 Hz (b) 3x105 A/m (c) 3-6x10!* Hz (c) 5x105 A/m (a) 7x105 A/m (a) 4-4x10!4 Hz . ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 5 [P:F:0: 23. The materials which possess a 26. Which one of the following never permanent magnetic moment in the dissipates energy but only stores it? absence of an external field and manifest very large and permanent (a) Pure capacitor magnetizations are (b) Pure resistor (a) ferromagnetic (c) Conductor (b) antiferromagnetic ates - (d) Ideal diode c) ferrimagnetic (a) superferrimagnetic 27. An ideal voltage source is defined : as energy source whose _ terminal 24. The magnetic inductance becomes zero voltage (V) is inside a superconductor when it is cooled below T, in a weak external field. The magnetic flux is expelled from the interior of the superconductor. (a) proportional to load with infinite internal resistance This effect is called (b) dependent on the output current (a). Boltzmann effect (c) independent of the output current (b) Meissner-Ochsenfeld effect (a) proportional to load with finite internal resistance (c) critical temperature effect (@) critical flux effect 28. Norton’s theorem states that any two- terminal linear network with current sources, voltage sources and resistances can be replaced by an equivalent circuit consisting of a 25. In a network, the number of linearly independent mesh equations (M) is (a) B+(N+}) (a) voltage source in parallel with a (b) B-(N-}) resistance (c) B+(N-}) (b) voltage source in series with a sistance (d) B-(N+)) ia where, B is number of branches in a () cuizenk aE eee aswien a resistance network N is number of nodes including (d) current source in parallel with a the reference node resistance ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 6 29. An ideal voltage source is a two-terminal 31. When a series R-L circuit is connected to element in which the a voltage V at t = 0, the current passing through the inductor L at t= 0* is (a) current is is completely Vv independent of the voltage (a) R : (b) © (b) voltage Ug is completely independent of the current i, Ps through its terminals (da) Vv L (c) current te is completely where, V is voltage applied independent through its terminals Ris resistance L is inductor (d) voltage v, is completely dependent on current i, through its terminals 32. Which of the following statements for a balanced 3-phase circuit are correct? 30. A circuit consists of 1 i circuit consists of a voltage source with \. ieee abenteieds. power 50V int i and an internal resistance of 25 Q. p= 3b, wikie # is the teal power If a load is connected to the voltage per phase. source, the maximum power drawn by the Modduresistence OBOnIO willbe 2. The sum of three currents at any instant is zero. (a) 15W 3. The sum of instantaneous reactive powers is zero. (b) 20W Select the correct answer. (a) 1 and 2 only (ce) 25W (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (a) 30W (d) 1,2 and 3 ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 7 [PsE:0; 33. In a 3-phase balanced star-connected 36. Three capacitors of capacitances 10 uF, system, the line voltages are 20 uF and 40 uF are connected in series across 280V. The charge of each (a) 90° ahead of their respective phase गन வாது voltages (b) 90° behind their respective phase ( 0-6x10% © voltages (c) 30° ahead of their respective phase (b) 1.6×10-3 voltages () 30° behind their respective phase 60606 voltages (0 3.6×10-3 34. Which of the following conditions for a 2-port symmetrical electrical network . «standard 37. Which one of the following standards notations) is used to check and _ calibrate 1. ] = 22 laboratory instrument for accuracy and 2. A=D performance? 3. 1 = 1122 (a) International standard Select the correct answer. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) Voltage standard (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Working standard 2 and 3 only (a) Secondary standard () 1, 2 and 3 38. The expected value of the voltage across 35. Consider the following network function : a resistor is 80V. However, the 10s measurement gives a value of 79 V. The 775) = ,‎ 3008+ 108) percentage of accuracy will be nearly The quality factor Q is (a) 92.75% (a) 5-3 (b) 94.25% (b) 4-7 ee 4 96.25% 3. (0) 2-7 (d) 98-75% ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 8 39. A meter will give a lower indication of the voltage drop that actually existed before the meter was connected. This effect is called (a) inductive effect of an instrument (b) synchronizing effect of an instrument (c) loading effect of an instrument (d) capacitive effect of an instrument 40. The basic permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) mechanism is often called (a) d’Arsonval movement (b) G Arsonval movement (c) current sensitivity (d) voltage sensitivity 41. In frequency division multiplexing, a typical telemetry carrier frequency of 230 MHz is used with a bandwidth of (a) +320kHz (b) +490 kHz (c) +520kHz (a) +590kHz 42. The potential transformer is used to operate voltmeters, potential coils of wattmeters and relays from (a) high current lines (b) low current lines (c) high voltage lines (d) low voltage lines ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 43. The output power wattmeter is designed to measure the output power (a) inversely in an arbitrary load (b) directly in an arbitrary load (c) squared in an arbitrary load (d) indirectly in an arbitrary load 44. The nominal ratio K, for a current transformer is Primary winding current Secondary winding current (a) Rated primary winding current Rated secondary winding current (b) (c) Secondary winding current Primary winding current Rated secondary winding current d (a) Rated primary winding current 45. Which one of the following generates an electrical signal directly in response to the physical parameter and does not require an external power source for its operation? (a) Active transducer (b) Passive transducer (c) Amplifier (a) Rectifier [ P.T.O. 46. The output voltage of LVDT is 1-5V at 49. What is the full form of the following maximum displacement. At a load of expression? 0-5 MQ, the deviation from linearity is maximum and it is +0-003V from a Y =IIM(0O, 1, 3,4) straight line through origin. The linearity at the given load will be (a) (A+ B+C)(A+B+C) (A+B+C)(A+B+C) (a) +0-1% (b) (A+B+C)\(A+B+C) (b) +0-2% ; (A+B+C)(A+B+C) (c) +0-3% (c) (A+B+C)\(A+B+C) 2 (A+B+C)(A+B+C) (a) +0-4% (d) (A+B+C)(A+B+C) (A+B+C)(A+B+C) 47. Force-summing devices are used (a) to add different forces 50. Which one of the following operators replaces certain statements of the (b) to convert the applied force into if-then-else form in C/C++? displacement (a) , Operator (c) to measure forces (b) * Operator (d) to convert the displacement into (c) & Operator force (a) ? Operator 48. Which one of the following can act as 51. The necessary steps that the processor inverse transducer, when a voltage is has to carry out for fetching an applied across its surfaces? instruction from the memory and executing it, constitute (a) Electrical resistance potentiometer (a) an interrupt LVDT (®) (b) an addressing (c) Capacitive transducer (c) an instruction cycle (d) Piezoelectric crystal (ad) a control signal ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 10 52. The total storage capacity of a floppy 55. In TFT LCD monitor, TFT stands for disk having 80 tracks and_ storing 128 bytes/sector is 163840 bytes. (a) Thick Film Transistor How many sectors does the disk have? (b) Thin Film Transistor (a) 18 (b) 16 (c) Time Film Transistor (c) 14 (da) Through Film Transistor (d) 12 56. Which one of the following is the low- level software that schedules tasks, allocates storage, and handles the interface to peripheral hardware? 53. Which one of the following buses is used to control the access to and use of data and address buses by various units which share the bus in a computer system? (@,, BMG (a) Data bus (b) CPU (b) Address bus (c) 1/0 device (c) Power bus (ay: oral (da) Control bus 57. Which one of the following is used 54. Ifat time to, the address from which data for generation of an accurate time is to be retrieved is placed in MAR and delay for event counting, rate at time t,, the required data is available generation, complex waveform in MDR, the elapsed time (tf, -to) is generation applications? called (a) Programmable timer/counter (a) cycle time of the memory DMA troll (b) write time of the memory () Severe (c) read time of the memory (c) Match coprocessor (ad) access time of the memory (ad) Programmable interrupt controller ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 11 [-PIT.O3 58. The wrapping-up of data and functions 61. The leakage current Ic¢go from collector into a single unit is known as to emitter with the base lead open in common-emitter configuration is (a) encapsulation (@) Ico(1+Bpc) (b) abstraction (b) Igo(1+%pc) (c) inheritance () Igo(1-Bpc) (a) polymorphism (4) Toole) where, Ic¢g is leakage current from collector to base with the emitter 59. Which one of the following file operations open is used with random access files to first Apc is DC current gain in position read/write pointer to a specific common-base configuration place in file so that the data can be read Bpc is DC current gain in from, or written to that position? common-emitter configuration (a) Read 62. Which one of the following represents the level of energy of the valence (b) Write electrons of an atom bound under the effect of electromagnetic force between (c) Seek the electrons and nucleus? F (a) VB (a) Set attribute (b) CB 60. Which one of the following not only () Ec translates the code into machine (a) EB language but also executes it? 63. Ripple is the variation of output voltage (a) Interpreter about DC which is (a) quite small in a half-rectified wave (b) Linker (b) same in a half-rectified wave (c) . Loader (c) quite large in a half-rectified wave (a) Compiler (ad) same in a full-rectified wave ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 12 64. The rise time of certain amplifier is 35 ns. 67. Which one of the following amplifiers What is the approximate bandwidth of transmits the input to the output 4 terminals and is used as a_ buffer the amplifier? amplifier? (a) 10MHz (a) Common-emitter amplifier (b) 35 MHz (b) Common-base amplifier (c) 28-5MHz (c) Common-collector amplifier (d) 1MHz (a) Common-source amplifier 65. For JFET, Ipss = 6mA, Vp = -4-5V and 68. In the low-frequency range, the gain is Vos =-2V. The value of Ip will be influenced by the coupling capacitor C,. The amplifier behaves like an nearly (a) 0-9mA (a) R-C high-pass filter (b) 1-9mA (b) R-C low-pass filter (c) 2:7mA (c) R-C all-pass filter (a) 3-7mA (a) R-C notch filter 69. The word ‘hybrid’ in h-parameters 66. If the feedback network is purely indisates that resistive, then negative feedback is introduced as feedback voltage V; and (a) the units of four parameters are ami output voltage V, are in phase, and a such amplifier is called (b) the units of four parameters are hybrid and do not belong to one (a) summing amplifier physical quantity (b) inverting amplifier (c) the parameters are used in transmission line theory (c) non-inverting amplifier (d) the parameters are used in (ad) integrator amplifier different types of amplifiers ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 13 FP-T-O; 70, An amplifier has an open-loop gain of 1000. This gain varies by +100, and feedback is introduced to ensure that the voltage gain varies by not more than +0-1%. The gain with feedback Ap 73. The output signal of an op-amp with a slew rate of 2V/us has a maximum value of 10 V. The maximum frequency for undistorted output voltage will be nearly will be (a) 32 kHz (a) 5 of’ 20 (b) 36 kHz (c) 15 (c) 42 kHz (a) 20 (ad) 46 kHz 71. In L-C oscillators, radio frequency choke (RFC) is used 74. Non-inverting amplifier with feedback exhibits the characteristics of the (a) to produce high frequency perfect (b) to provide stability to oscillator (a) current amplifier (c) to prevent high-frequency current flowing through the power supply (b) voltage amplifier (c) current-to-voltage converter (d) to provide positive feedback (a) voltage-to-current converter 72. A sinusoidal oscillator is an amplifier with 75. For a 12-bit A/D converter of an input clock frequency of 1 MHz, the maximum conversion required time will be nearly (a) negative feedback and does not require any input (b) negative feedback and does not (a) 2ms require any active device (c) positive feedback and does not (o) 4ms require any input (c) 6ms (d) positive feedback and does not require any active device (ad) 8ms ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 14 76. A carrier signal having 10V peak 79. An amplitude modulated amplifier has a amplitude is amplitude modulated by radio frequency output of 50 W at 100% three different modulating frequencies modulation. If the internal loss in the with peak amplitude levels of 2V, 3V modulator is 10 W, the unmodulated and 4V respectively. The modulation carrier power will be index of the resultant complex AM signal will be nearly oe (b) 20W (a) 0:44 (c) 30W ai (a) 40W (c) 0-62 80. The maximum deviation allowed in an (da) 0-72 FM broadcast system is 75 kHz. If the modulating signal is a_ single-tone sinusoid of 10 kHz, the bandwidth of 77. An AC signal having constant amplitude the FM signal will be of 10V, but variable frequency is applied across a simple low-pass R-L (a) 140 kHz circuit with a cut-off frequency of 1 kHz. kH: If Ris 1 kQ, the value of L will be nearly eo sae (c) 160 kHz (a) 130 mH (da) 170 kHz (b) 140 mH 81. The Peak Envelope Power (PEP) in (c) 150 mH suppressed carrier signal is (d) 160 mH a v2 fay 2R, 78. It is desired to design a microcontroller- 2 (ey abe ‘ 2V;, based periodic signal generator with (b) pie minimum and maximum time period R, specifications of 125ns and 100 ms. v2 Then the system clock frequency will be (c) a L, (a) 8 MHz 2v2 () (b) 10 MHz R? a where, V, is peak signal voltage (d) 14 MHz R, is load resistance ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 15 prer0. 82. An open-circuit noise voltage generated across a 100kQ resistor over a frequency range of direct current to 20kHz at room temperature of 25 °C will be nearly (a) 4-9 uv (b) 5-7 pv (c) 6-5 uv (ad) 7-3 pv 83. A voice signal band limited to 3-4 kHz is sampled at 8 kHz and pulse code modulated using 64 quantization levels. If ten such signals are time division multiplexed using one 5-bit synchronizing word, the minimum channel bandwidth will be (a) 410 kHz (b) 520 kHz (c) 430 kHz (d) 340 kHz 84. Six analog information signals, each band limited to 4kHz, are required to be time division multiplexed and transmitted by a TDM system. The minimum transmission bandwidth of the PAM/TDM channel will be (a) 40 kHz (b) 32 kHz (c) 24 kHz (d) 16 kHz ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 16 85. By applying the time-shifting property, what is the z-transform of the following signal? zl 1-327! X@) = (a) x(n) =(3)"*) unt) (b) x(n) =(3)""! -un+ () x(n) =(3)"*1 -uin-1) (d) x(n) =(3)""! -un-}) 86. The relationship between the unit step and delta function is (a) fu(t)at = 3(t) (b) J8(t)at =r(t) (c) friyat=r¢e) (a) fa(t)dt=u(t) 87. Which one of the following time signals is said to be periodic with period T, for which the signal is advanced in time and hence it remains unchanged? (a) Even (b) Odd (c) Continuous (ad) Discrete 88. Consider a continuous-time system with 91. The Fourier transform of unit step input x(t) and output y(t) : function u(t) is (a) 78(0) y(t) = x(sint) 0) ult) The system is Nes 1 (a) causal ( (0) non-causal 1 () u(t) » 76()--- (c) invertible Jo | 92. Consider the following signals : 89. In the Fourier series representation, the 26) = 10cos(100nt); 226) = 10cos(SOnt) condition for the even symmetry is If both are sampled at f, = 75112, the sampled signals x,(n) and 22 (71) are (a) x(t)=x(-t) ) x(t) =-x(+t) (a) ) and 1000527) 7 7 (0) ) (¢ cos(*) and 2) 2n 7 <+ d 2 ‎ xtt)=x(t+2) ) (‌) cos( ] and cos( 2 ) 90. Consider that the signal Xq(t) = 10cos2n(1000)t + Scos2n(5000t) 93. When the Fourier transform and inverse transform equations are similar but not is to be sampled. The Nyquist rate is quite identical, then this symmetry leads to a property called (a) 5 kHz (a) proportional (b) 10 kHz (b) multiplication (c) 15 kHz (c) convolution (0 20 kHz () duality ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 17 ৮০৮১০ 94. Consider 97. For type 2 system with unit ramp input, 1 the steady-state error e,, is H,(s) = > and T=0-1s (s+) (a) = Using bilinear transformation, H(z) is 0:0476 wo 2 (1-0-9048z)2 is 0-0476(1+ z)? (c) 0 (1-0-9048271)2 : (o) 0-0476 (4) TK: (1-0-9048271)2 (a) 0:0476(1+271)? 98. A transfer function of a linear time- (1-0-9048271)2 invariant system is defined to be the ratio of the Laplace transform of 95. Which one of the following systems can be represented by the given general (a) the output variable to the Laplace difference equation? transform of the input variable y(n) =- F appiet k)+ Sid, ci k) under the assumption that all the k=l k=l initial conditions are zero (a) DFS (b) CFS (b) the input variable to the Laplace transform of the output variable gai under the assumption that all the (a) LSF initial conditions are not zero 96. What is the convolution of the given two 6 (c) the output variable to the Laplace sequences? A transform of the input variable x(n)=e™ , foralln and under the assumption that all the h(n) = 3n?, for all n initial conditions are not zero (a) 3-521n? +1-5 (ad) the input variable to the Laplace (b) 1-623n+1 (c) 1-598 (ad) 5-318n? +2-654 transform of the output variable under the assumption that all the initial conditions are zero ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 18 99. For a unity feedback control system, the 101. The steady-state errors for type 1, type 2 forward path transfer function is given and type 3 systems with parabolic input by are respectively ട്രേ 10 (a) infinite, constant value and zero (> ) (b) constant value, infinite and zero The position and velocity error (c) infinite, zero and constant value 2. ‎ . (0) constant value, zero and infinite 102. The Laplace transform of the function (a) 2 and () 2 and 0 ¢) = "< ( 20 and 18 (4 20 and 0 (a) 7! ( 100. A system is described by the differential nl equation Oa 3 (- a)” = 226) _d 4) ) = 7) + 37 -2 7! at? ‌ (1 8% (s+ a) The transfer function of the system is (a) 7! (5 = a)” +1 2 (2) - £. ‎ 352 - 55 - 1 150 ti 103. If any root of the characteristic equation £ has a positive real part or if there is (b) a repeated root on the jwaxis, the 3s? - 55 - 1 system is -25 (a) conditionally stable () 1+ 3e 3s? +5s+1 (b) limitedly stable ) stable ¦. ‎ 6 352 + 55 + 1 (‌) unstable ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 19 (99 104. Consider the unity feedback system 106. A mathematical abstraction to represent given by or model the dynamics of a system utilizes three types of variables called G(s) = (a) time, frequency and amplitude of (s+1)? the input (b) input, output and time The phase margin is (c) input, output and state variables (a) 0° (a) input, output and frequency (b) 45° (c) 120° 107. If it is possible to transfer the system state from any initial state x(t) to any (a) 180° other desired state x(t) in specified finite time by a control vector u(t), the system is said to be completely (a) stable (b) observable s ti i Ei 105. For the system having open-loop (Wikies Gitte transfer function (ad) unstable Gali ae S(s +2)(s + 3) 108. If every state x(to) can be completely identified by measurements of the the breakaway point is nearly output y(t) over a finite time interval, the system is said to be completely (a) -0-245 (a) state controllable (b) -0-785 (b) observable (c) -1-585 (c) unstable (d) -3-345 (d) stable ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 20 109. If the output voltage in autotransformer 112. A shunt generator is rated at 240 V full is less than the input voltage load. At no load, the voltage is 252 V. The voltage regulation will be (a) the load current is more than the input current (a) 5% (b) the load current is less than the (b) 6% input current (c) 7% (c) the load current becomes zero (a) 8% (@) the input current becomes zero 113. When a compound generator has its series field flux aiding its shunt field 110. The i field circuit resistance (f maximum field circuit resistance (for fluxcathemmathine isi said tecbe a given speed) with which the shunt . generator would just excite is known (a) differentially compound as its (b) cumulative compound (a) series field resistance (c) series machine (b) critical field resistance (a) shunt machine (c) shunt field resistance (d) load field resistance : 114. The load torque developed by synchronous motor at which the 111. The speed at which the rotating magnetic motor pulls out of the synchronism is field revolves is called called (a) asynchronous speed (a) breakdown torque (b) synchronous speed (b) starting torque (c) constant speed (c) pull-in torque (d) variable speed (a) maximum torque ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 21 [P:O; 115. A 6-pole, 3-phase induction motor is 118. In salient-pole machines, the resultant connected to a 50 Hz supply. If it is air gap flux is increased as in a running at 970 r.p.m., the slip will be cylindrical rotor alternator when armature reaction flux 9, for y = 90° (a) 3% (a) leading aids the field flux o Wa (b) 4% (b) lagging aids the field flux o if (c) 5% (c) leading opposes the field flux o if (ad) 6% (a) lagging opposes the field flux o f 116. The stator of a 3-@ induction motor has 3 slots per pole per phase. If the supply 119. A stepper motor has a step angle of 10° frequency is 50 Hz, the speed of the and is required to rotate at 200 r.p.m. rotating stator flux will be The pulse rate of the motor will be (a) 800 r.p.m. (a) 120 steps/s (b) 1000 r.p.m. (b) 130 steps/s (c) 1200 r.p.m. (c) 140 steps/s (a) 1500 r.p.m. (ad) 150 steps/s 117. The graph between armature current (I,) 120. A four-stack VR stepper motor has a step and field current (I f) of a synchronous angle of 1-8°. The number of its rotor motor for a constant load is called teeth will be (a) Z-curve (a) 48 (b) T-curve (b) 5O (c) C-curve (c). $2 (da) V-curve (a) 54 ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 22 121. Which one of the following power plants 124. The insulation resistances R, and Ry of is suitable for supplying peak loads? a live 2-wire network are measured by (a) Nuclear power plant earthing each main in turn through a (b) Steam power plant milliammeter in series with a high resistance r. When the supply voltage is 500 V, the values of r=20000Q, i}=lmA and = i,=0-5mA, the 122. The specific rotational speed (N,) for a insulation resistances R, and R, water turbine is WAP (c) Hydropower plant (ad) Gas turbine power plant respectively are (a) 7225 (a) 0-47 MQ and 0.28 MQ PAW (b) 0-94 MQ and 0-28 MQ (b) ae (c) 0-47 MQ and 0-47 MQ oo Se (d) 0-94 MQ and 0.47 MQ 25 PVN (a) a5 H 125. The advantages of supercritical steam where, P,; is output in metric hp N is actual rotational speed of the turbine 1. low grade fossil fuels can be used power plants are H is effective head in metres 2. NO, emissions are completely eliminated 123. A steam power station of 100 MW capacity uses coal of calorific value 3. SO, emissions are reduced and of 6400 kcal/kg. The thermal efficiency © of the station is 30% and electrical generation efficiency is 92%. When the Which of the above advantages are station is working at full load, the coal complete burning of coal occurs required per hour will be nearly one (a) 38-3 tonnes (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 48-7 tonnes (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 54-7 tonnes (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 64-3 tonnes (a) 1,2 and 3 ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 23 [Pa 126. A 3-phase, 10000 kVA, 11 kV alternator has a sub-transient reactance of 8%. If 3-phase short circuit occurs at its terminals, the fault power will be nearly (a) 125 MVA (b) 135 MVA (c) 145 MVA (d) 155 MVA 127. The operating time t of a static time- current relay is IM Cl eee eee K" -1/ KM hageg iy () IM (Ogee K +I KM Tse 5 (a) where, M is time multiple setting I is multiple of tap current I, is multiple of tap current at which pickup occurs n is characteristic index of the relay K is design constant of the relay ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 24 128. A uniformly distributed load on a distributor of length 500 m is rated at 1A/m length. The distributor is fed from one end at 220V. If the loop resistance is 2x 107> Q/m, the voltage drop at a distance of 400m from the feeding point will be (a) 5-2V (b) 4-2V () 3-4V (d) 2-4V 129. Which one of the following distributors is having greater reliability and better flexibility? (a) Ring main distributor (b) Tree distributor (c) Radial distributor (ad) Tapered distributor 130. An existing DC three-wire system is to be converted into a 3-phase, 4-wire system by adding a fourth wire equal in cross-section to each outer wire of the DC system. For the same supply and load voltages to neutral and balanced conditions, the extra power at unity power factor that can be supplied by the AC system will be (a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 70% 131. Which of the following statements are 133. R, L and Cin an SCR circuit meant for correct for load flow? protecting against & and S are 4Q, 1. Bus admittance matrix is the 6 nH and 6 pF respectively. If the supply voltage is 300V, the maximum most economical from the point of “ di permissible value of — is view of computer time and memory dt requirements. (a) 30x10° A/s 2. The mathematical formulation of (b) 40x10® A/s the load flow problem results in a 6 (c) 50x10° A/s system of non-linear equations. (a) 60x10® A/s 3. In a power system, each node or bus is associated with four . 134. A 3kV, 750A power electronics circuit quantities. has thyristors with 800V and 175A rating. If the derating is of 25%, the Select the correct answer. number of thyristors in series will be (a) 8 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 7 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 6 (c) 2 and 3 only (a) 5 (d) 1,2 and3 135. Depending on the design principles used, gating circuits are very essential to é direct 132. Fixed and _ semi-fixed costs being $ (a) firing pulses to each transistor in independent of the amount of energy an appropriate region of the supply generated are also called cycle (a) generating costs (b) pulse distribution (b) operating costs (c) firing pulses to each thyristor in an appropriate region of the supply (c) running costs cycle (d) standing costs (a) synchronization of thyristor ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 25 [P:t-0: 136. Which one of the following commutated 138. The reverse recovery current of a power converters is working on the principle of diode is 10s and the rate of fall of - current is about 200 A/us. What is the natural commutation? storage charge? (a) Series-parallel commutated converter (a) 10 mC 100 mC (b) Series commutated converter (0) (c) 400 mC (c) Parallel commutated converter (ad) 40 mC (ad) Line commutated converter 139. The advantageous feature of AC drives with a current source DC link converter is 137. In a single-phase full-wave controlled rectifier circuit with midpoint feb ulti cis sc lees inte eonneuraton,.two SCRs (M-2) and (b) high degree of motor protection (a) an autotransformer with centre- tapped secondary windings are 1 Pe oe onmayed (d) control structure more simple (b) a three-phase transformer with 140. When an AC main is ON, the rectifier circuit will supply the power to the are employed inverter as well as to the battery, therefore, it acts asa centre-tapped secondary windings (c) a single-phase transformer with (a) UPS system centre-tapped secondary windings are employed (b) power conditioner (c) static switch (d) a central tapping transformer with secondary windings are employed (d) rectifier cum charger ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 26 141. Based on the use of resonant tank, the 143. The resonant technique processes power resonant converters are classified as in sinusoidal form. The power switches 1. resonant DC link converters are often turned off under 2. resonant AC link converters (a) minimum current 3. resonant switch converters 4. load resonant converters (b) zero current Select the correct answer. (c) high current (a) 1, 2,3 and 4 (ad) device current (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only 144. DC to DC converters basically consist of two conversion stages, namely (a) DC to AC resonant inverters and AC to DC rectifier 142. If resonant elements are added to the DC-DC converters, then the resulting converters are known as (b) AC to DC resonant inverters and DC to AC rectifier (a) semiconductor devices (c) DC to AC converters and AC to DC (b) resonant switch converters ; rectifier (c) component inductances (a) AC to DC converters and DC to AC (d) multi-resonant switches rectifier ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 27 FPSE-O: Directions : Each of the following six (06) items consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’, You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below : Codes : (a) Both Statement (I) and State- ment (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I) Both Statement (I) and State- ment (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I) (b) (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false Statement (I) is false but (a) t Statement (II) is true 145. Statement (I) : If the capacitance of an overhead line is high, the line draws more charging current, which compensates or cancels the lagging component of load current. Statement (II) : The resultant current flowing in the line is reduced. 146. Statement (I) : Voltage control and reactive power control are interrelated and need to be therefore considered together. Statement (II) : The voltage variation at a load is an indication of the unbalance between the reactive power generated and absorbed by that load. ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 147. Statement (I) : BIBO stands for Bounded Input Bounded Output. The meaning of the word ‘bounded?’ is some finite value. Statement (II) : A system is said to be stable, if it follows “BIBO principle, i.e., every bounded input produces bounded output. 148. Statement (I) : Insulation resistance falls with increase in temperature; in some cases, there is a marked decrease in insulation resistance. Statement (II) : The resistivity of the insulator is considerably lowered in the presence of _ moisture. 149. Statement (I) : A computer’s control unit does not perform any actual processing of jobs, but acts as the central nervous system for other components of the computer systems. Statement (II) : It obtains instructions from a program stored in main memory, interprets the instructions and _ issues __ signals causing other units of the system to execute them. 150. Statement (I) : The resistivity of ferrites is very much higher than that of ferromagnetic metals. Statement (II) : The ferrites are chemical compounds and electrons in them are subject to restraint of valence forces. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 29 [ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 30 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 31 [RBs SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kkk ASNP-T-ELEN/59A 32 25SS—18240