QP-ESEP-25-ELECTRONICS-AND-TELECOMMUNICATION-ENGINEERING-P-II-090625

Engineering Services (P) Examination - 2025 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : ASNP-T-ELTE Test Booklet Series 6 = = TEST BOOKLET 3m a) ao ELECTRONICS AND TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300 - You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS - IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. . Please note that it is the candidate’s res onsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or Se ee at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. - This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . All items carry equal marks. - Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in.the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you ‘ with your Admission Certificate. 10. . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. . Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO (9) esoinee pniresnigns QSOS - noitsnimsx3 1. Which one of the following is the 4. MOSFETs have characteristics similar maximum reverse voltage that can be _ in form to those of JFETs. Hence applied to the P-N junction? MOSFETs are also known as (a) Maximum forward voltage (a) Depletion MOSFETs (D-MOSFETs) (b) Peak inverse voltage (b) Enhancement MOSFETs (E-MOSFETs) (c}) Maximum average voltage (c) Insulated Gate Field Effect (d) Respective peak forward voltage Transistors (IGFETs) (ad) p-channel MOSFETs 2. The common-base DC current gain of a transistor is 0-967. If the emitter current is 10 mA, the base current 5. A transistor has « =0-995 and if the will be. base current is 200 pA, the value of the emitter current will be (a) 0°53 mA (a) 30 mA (b) 0-44 mA (b) 35 mA (c) 0:33 mA (c) 40 mA (ad) 0:24 mA (d) 45 mA 3. In actual MOSFET characteristic, a non- zero slope exists beyond the saturation 6. A common-emitter transistor amplifier point. For the saturation region, i.e., has an input impedance of 2 kQ and (Vpg > Vpg (Sat)), the effective channel a load resistance of 25 kQ. If the B of length decreases and this phenomenon the transistor is 100, the power gain is called will be (a) base width modulation (a) 112500 (b) channel width modulation (b) 125000 (c) channel length modulation (c) 150000 (d) base length modulation (da) 175000 ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 2 7. Which one of the following amplifiers is 10. ICs in which circuits are fabricated, called an emitter follower? i.e., all the transistors in such circuits operate in cut-off and_ saturation regions, the adders, multiplexers and (a) Common-emitter amplifier comparators are (b) Common-collector amplifier (a) digital ICs (c) Common-base amplifier (b) linear ICs (dq) Common-drain amplifier (c) analog ICs (d) hybrid ICs 8. Which one of the following is not the correct advantage of integrated circuits (ICs)? 11. For a non-inverting amplifier, the input resistor R, = 1 kQ and feedback resistor (a) Low power consumption R ft 10 kQ The closed-loop voltage gain A if and feedback factor B spectively are (b) Very high reliability because failure ate rate becomes minimal as there is no, exposed component (a) 11 and 0:07 (c) There are no limitations of power et and voltage rating ij. ene Cc, and 0: (d) Improved performance (a) 13 and 0:09 9. MOSFET, used as a load device, is 12. Which one of the following is a three- referred to as region reverse-biased junction diode? (a) critical load (a) P-N junction diode (b) dormant load (b) Light-emitting diode (c) active load (c) PIN photodiode (d) passive load (ad) Zener diode ASNP-T-ELTE/60A : 3 [P:T:0: 13. Two resistances, one of 30 Q and another 16. Which one of the following statements is of: unknown value are connected in correct regarding an ideal transformer? parallel; the total power dissipated in the circuit is 450 W, when the applied (a) The leakage flux is large. voltage is 90 volts. The value of the Unico Wag eas eaceayenl Be (b) The transformer core losses are 1 i (a) 352 fe (b) 402 (c) The transformer core material has : infinite permeability. (c) 452 (d) The transformer windings are with (a) 50Q ’ large resistances. 14. A voltmeter has a resistance of 20000 Q. When connected in series with an external resistance across a 230 V 17. A 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor is running at 1455 r.p.m. The value of h the slip will be supply, the instrument reads 160 V. _The value of the external resistance will be ae (a) 87502 (b) 3% (b) 85602 (c) 4% (c) 83702 (d) 5% (d) 8180Q 18. The e.m.f. per turn of a single-phase, 15. Which one of the following is not 10 KVA, 2200/220 V, 50 Hz trans- the correct advantage of wound-rotor former is 10 V. If the maximum flux (or slip-ring) induction motor? density is 1:5 T, the net cross-sectional area of the core will be (a) It has high starting torque with low starting current (a) 0:01 m2 (b) It has adjustable speed (b) 0-02 m2 ‘(c) It has high overload capaci ie e wat (c) 0-03 m? (ad) It has high efficiency as compared to squirrel-cage motor (ad) 0:04 m? ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 4 19. A transformer rated 200/50 V, 10 kVA 22. A 6-pole synchronous generator driven has a core loss of 100 W. If the full-load at 1000 r.p.m. feeds a 4-pole induction copper loss is 200 W and lagging power motor. If it is loaded to run at a slip factor is 0-8, the load at maximum of 4%, the motor speed will be efficiency will be nearly @). 13 . fa) 60 r.p.m. (a) 9 kVA (b) 1440 r.p.m. (b) 7 kVA (c) 1560 r.p.m. (c) SKVA (@) 1640 r.p.m. IC, 23. An 8-pole, lap-wound, DC generator (a) 3 kVA has 1000 armature conductors, a flux of 20 mWb per pole and the e.m‘f. generated is 200 V. What is the speed 20. The impedance which transforms from of the machine? one side of the ideal transformer to the 300 other is in the direct ; (a) ae aes (b) 600 r.p.m. (a) square ratio of turns (c) 900 r.p.m. (b) square root of ratio of turns (d) 1200 r.p.m. ‘(c)_ ratio of turns 24. Consider the following statements regarding transformer : (d) square root of square ratio of tums 1. It is a device that transfers electric power from one circuit to another. 21. In which one of the following machines, 2. In transformer, the two electric the field poles are on the stator (and are circuits are linked by mutual DC excited) and the rotor constitutes induction. the armature? : Which of the above statements is/are (a) Induction machine er 4 fa) 1 onk (b) Elementary synchronous machine (a) e (b) 2 only (c) DC machine (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) AC machine (ad) Neither 1 nor 2 ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 5 [ P.T.O. 25. Whenever a charged particle has an 28. Which of the following are the important angular momentum, it will contribute varieties of electrical mica? to the permanent dipole moment. The following are the contributions to the M it i id a ite angular momentum of an atom : (a) asc ee ae mica 1. Orbital angular momentum of electron (b) Muscovite mica and pyrex mica 2. Electron spin angular momentum 3. Nuclear spin angular momentum (c) Phlogopite mica and quartz mica ‘Which of the above contributions to the (d) Phlogopite mica and pyrex mica angular momentum of an atom are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only 29. The dielectric strength of rubber is 40000 volts/mm at frequency 60 Hz. (b) 1 and 3 only What is the thickness of insulation on (c) 2 and 3 only a wire carrying 33 kV to sustain the breakdown? (a) 1, 2 and 3 26. A substance of FCC lattice is having i eee a molecular weight of 60-2 and density of 6250 kg/m®. If the value of (b) 0-72 mm N is 6-02x 1076 /kg-mole, the lattice constant will be (c) 0:82 mm (a) 2A () 4A (a) 0:94 mm (c) 6A (a) 8A 30. STM stands for 27. Steatite is made from (a) Scanning Tunneling Microscope (a) talc mixed with small quantity of clay and feldspar (b) Scientific Technical Microscope (b) metal oxides and titanium dioxide (c) Scanning Technical Microscope (c) aluminium dioxide (d) barium titanate (a) Scientific Tunneling Microscope ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 6 31. An iron rod of 2 m length and 4 cm? cross-section is in the form of a closed ring. The permeability of the iron ring is 50x10* H-m~. To produce a magnetic flux of 4x10~+ Wb, the required ampere-turns will be (a) 200 A/m (b) 225 A/m (c) 250 A/m (dq) 275 A/m 32. When transactions are executing .concurrently in an interleaved fashion, then the order of execution of operations from the various transactions is known as (a) schedule (b) serializability (c) concurrency (ad) controllable ” Which one of the following is one of the most popular solutions processing for nanoparticles (mostly oxides) production? (a) CVD technique (b) Sol-gel technique (c) Aerogel synthesis technique (ad) Co-precipitation technique ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 34. The transition temperature T, of a superconductor varies with its isotopic mass M as (a) T; < M™? (b) T. = M? (c) Ts <M (d) T, «< M? - The ‘Cooper pairing’ is related to (a) chemical vapour deposition (b) thermal conductivity (c) superconductivity (d) flame pyrolysis 36. For mercury of mass number 202, the value of a is 0-5 and TJ, =4-153K. For the isotope of mercury of mass number 200, the transition temperature is nearly (a) 34K (b) 42K () 54K (d) 62K [P.7.0. 37. Which one of the following is not a 40. The basic Permanent Magnet Moving Coil correct method of obtaining damping? (PMMC) instrument mechanism is often called .(a) Air friction : (a) electrodynamic movement (b) Fluid friction (b) galvanometer movement (c) Magnetic field (a) Edd ' (c) iron vane movement ly curren (ad) d’Arsonval movement 38. A 0-25 A ammeter has a guaranteed : accuracy of 1% of full-scale reading. If the current measured by this 41. Which one of the following types of instrument is 10 A, the limiting error instruments will be used for AC will be measurements (current, voltage, power and energy)? (a) 25% (a) Moving iron (b) 2-0% Moving coil permanent magnet (15% (b) g pe gn (d) 1-25% (c) Moving coil dynamometer (da) Induction 39. The torque of an ammeter is directly proportional to the current flowing through it. A current of 10 A causes a deflection of 60°. When the instrument is spring-controlled, for a deflection 42. In a measurement system, if the force (across) is a measured variable, then its associated variable (power-based) of 40°, the value of the current will ' will be be nearly (a) 67 A (a) translational displacement (b) S7A : (b) translational acceleration (c) 49 A (c) translational velocity (d) 39A (a) rotational acceleration ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 8 43. A coil with a resistance of 5Q is 46. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT is connected to the terminals of a Q-meter. 0:05 mm/V and an unknown voltage Resonance occurs at an oscillator applied to the horizontal deflection frequency of 8 MHz and resonating plates shifts the spot by 5 mm towards capacitance of 150 pF. What is the the right in the horizontal direction. Percentage error introduced by the The unknown applied voltage will be insertion resistance of 0-1 Q? (a) 4% (a) 100 V (b) 3% (c) 2% (b) 125 V (@) 1% 44. The speed of a 6-pole induction motor (c) 150 V supplied at 50 Hz is measured by a stroboscopic method. The neon lamp is supplied from the same source to (ad) 200 V which the induction motor is connected. The stroboscopic disc has 6 black and 6 white sectors. When the sector appears to be moving at 50 r.p.m., the speed of the induction motor will be ee tem. 47. A capacitive transducer with its (b) 950 r.p.m. : plate separation of 0-05 mm under static conditions has a _ capacitance of 5x107!? F. For causing a change of capacitance of 0-75x107!2 F, the displacement will be nearly (c) 890 r.p.m. (d) 840 r.p.m. 45. An accelerometer has a seismic mass of 006 kg and a spring constant of 4500 N/m. If the maximum mass displacement is + 0-025 m (before the (a) 0-22 mm mass hits the top), the maximum measurable acceleration will be (a) 1675 m/s? (b) 0-33 mm (b) 1765 m/s? ere (c) 1875 m/s? Seema | ; (ad) 053 mm ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 9 [-PiTO. 48. The instrumentation the non- most of systems is input for electrical. This is converted into an electrical signal by a device called (a) (b) (c) (a) rectifier oscillator amplifier transducer 49. Which of the following statements are correct? i, Cut-off matrix provides a compact and effective means of writing algebraic equations giving branch voltages in terms of tree branches. In cut-set matrix, the number of independent node-pair terminals is equal to the number of tree branches. Tie-set matrix is used to find the branch currents. Select the correct answer. (a) (b) (c) (a) 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 10 50. Which of the following statements are correct? ic The end points of a line segment on the junction between two or more branches or the end points of an isolated branch are called nodes. If a sub-graph consists of an ordered sequence of branches, traversing from one node to another, this particular sub-graph is known as path. The closed contour selected in a graph is known as loop. Select the correct answer. (a) (b) (¢) (a) 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 51. Which of the following statements are correct? i. A connected sub-graph of a connected graph having all the nodes of a graph without any loop is known as a tree. The branches of the tree are known as twigs. The branches that are removed from the tree are termed links. Select the correct answer. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 52. Consider a reduced incidence matrix of a graph : ; P21 Ok Ot aaa [AJ=| 0 -1. 1-1 00 =1,0-<1. 50 -—-1e.0 The number of possible trees will be (a) 16 (b) 24 (eo) 26: (ad) 28 53. The Laplace transform of a function f(t) is defined by Lif(th = Fis) = |S fe“ at where sis a complex variable given by ‘(a) o- jo (b) 0+ jo (c) o/jo (d) jo/o 54. In an induction type energy meter, normally the flux due to shunt magnet does not lag the supply voltage exactly by 90°.-The reason being that the shunt coil has some resistance. Due to this, the angle of phase is less than 90°, as a result, the torque on the disc is not zero at zero power factor. This type of error is called (a) speed error (b) creeping _(c) phase error (ad) torque error ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 11 55. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding moving iron instruments? (a) These instruments possess high operating torque. (b) In consumption voltage ranges. these instruments, power is higher for low (c) These instruments are capable of giving accuracy within the limits of both precision and industrial grades. (a) Scales of these instruments are uniform. 56. If the z-parameters for a network are 21 =42 Q 299 =35Q, m2 =25Q and Zo, = 25 Q, then the parameters A, B, C and D are respectively (a) 1-68, 33-8Q, 0:04 mho, 1-4 (b) 2-68, 33-82, 0:04 mho, 0-4 (c) 1-68, 13-8Q, 0-14 mho, 1-4 (d) 2-68, 13-89, 0:14 mho, 0-4 57. Which one of the following features is not correct for Electronic Voltmeter (EVM)? (a) Sensitivity is of the order of 10 uV (full-scale) (b) In EVM, we also put some impedance matching stages (c) Has very small frequency operating range (da) Has internal protection against overloading [ P.T.O. 58. In a series R-C circuit, the value of R is 10Q and C=25nF. A sinusoidal voltage of 50 MHz is applied and the maximum voltage across the capacitance is 25 V. The maximum voltage across the series combination 61. The turns ratio of a transformer used in a half-wave rectifier is nj:ng = 12:1. The primary is connected to the power mains 220 V, 50 Hz. If the diode resistance in forward bias is zero, the PIV of the diode will be nearly will be nearly ‘a ey (a) 16V (b) 196 V (b) 19V (c) 163 V (c) 22V (d) 136V (4) 26 — An impedance Z,(2-j5)Q is connected in parallel with another impedance of Z,(1+j1)Q If the applied voltage is 17Z 0° V, then the currents through Z, and Zp, are respectively 62. FET amplifiers are introduced at the initial stages of receivers to make (a) the final output less noisy (a) 3-16268-2° Aand 10-02 Z-35°A (b) the bandwidth very large (b) 2-16248-2° Aand 10-02 2-35°A (c) the gain very large (c) 3-16268-2° Aand 12:02 2-45°A (<) * oe (d) 2-16248-2° A and 12-02 2-45°A (d) the output impedance very low 60. The P-N junction diodes and thermistors can be used to compensate for variations in current, thus stabilizing the operating point. Such methods are 63. A JFET has Vp =-4-5 V, Ipgg = 10 mA and Ipg=2-SmA. The _ trans- conductance will be nearly known as (a) 3:2 mA/V (a) thermal runaway (b) 2:8 mA/V (b) thermal stabilization (c) bias compensation (c) 2:2-mA/V (d) fixed bias (d) 1:8 mA/V ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 12 64. Which one of the following is not the 67. What is the result of Excess-3 (XS-3) correct advantage of negative feedback addition of numbers 9 and 5? in amplifiers? (a) Less harmonic distortion (a) 11 (b) Reduced noise (b) 12 (c) Highly stabilized gain (Geis (a) Decreased bandwidth (dq) 14 65. The advantage of the dual-slope ADC is its : 68. The network that couples the output (a) high sensitivity to noise and to signal voltage of a stage to the input variations in its component values of the next stage of a multi-stage caused by pressure changes amplifier is called (b) low sensitivity to noise and to variations in its component values caused by pressure changes (a) biasing network (b) resistive network (c) high sensitivity to noise and to variations in its component values caused by temperature changes (c) feedback network (a) low sensitivity to noise and to (a) variations in its component values caused by temperature changes coupling network 69. The expression 66. Consider the following _ Boolean Ff =(B+ BC)(B+ BC)(B+ D) expression : a ow <a after reduction is equivalent to f = ABC+B+BD+ABD+AC The simplified expression will be (a) B (a) A+B (b) B (b) B+C e).-C (c) C+D a (d) A+D (a) D ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 13 [P-TO. 70. 71. 72. The characteristic equation of J-K PAL is the programmable logic device with a fixed OR array and a programmable AND array. Because only the AND gates are (a) non-programmable, the PAL is easier to program than, but it is not as flexible as the PLA (b) programmable, the PAL is not easier to program than, but it is flexible as the PLA (c) non-programmable, the PAL is not easier to program than, but it is flexible as the PLA (a) programmable, the PAL is easier to program than, but it is not as flexible as the PLA ROM is a (a) non-volatile memory (b) volatile memory (c) read/write memory byte-organized memory (a) flip-flop is () Qn41 = Ord + OnK (b) Qn +1 = Qnd- nk (0) Qns1 = OnK + Qnd (@) Qn+1 = OnK -Qrd ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 73. Which one of the following noise bandwidths is the bandwidth of that ideal bandpass system which produces the same noise power as the actual system? (a) Equivalent noise bandwidth Linear noise bandwidth (b) (c) Actual noise bandwidth (d) Generalized noise bandwidth 74. If an audio signal s(t) = 3cos(2m500t) is quantized using 10-bit PCM, the signal-to-quantization noise ratio will be nearly (a) 0-6x10° (b) 1-2x10° (c) 1-6x10® (d) 2-2x10® 75. In information probability, when the 14 base is ‘2’, the unit is a ‘bit’? and when the base is ‘e’, the unit is a (a) ‘it’ (b) ‘decit’ (c) ‘hartley’ (d) ‘nat’ 76. An AM _ broadcast transmitter has 79. Which one of the following is particularly a carrier power output of 50 kW. With useful when large amounts of code 80% of modulation, the total power are needed to handle infrequently produced will be occurring cases? fa) Dynamic loadin; (a) 66 kW os . . (b) Static loading (b) 58 kw (c) Dynamic binding (c) 50 kw (d) Static binding 80. For a Pulse Amplitude Modulated (PAM) (a) 42 kW transmission of voice signal having maximum frequency equal to 2:5 kHz, if the sampling frequency is 10 kHz ‘77. A transmitter operates from a 12 V and the pulse duration is one-tenth of supply with a collector current of 2 A. the sampling period, the transmission If the modulation transformer has a bandwidth will be turns ratio of 4:1, the load impedance seen by the audio amplifier will be : (a) 60 kHz (b) 50 kHz 78 Q (a) (c) 40 kHz (b) 822 (d) 30 kHz : 81. Si), the output ASK signal for i 88 Q () kT <t<(k+T, is (a) 962 (a) Am(t)@,(t + kT) (b) Am(t)a,(t- kT) 78. The fall of |A,| and the increase of @ over (c) Am(t)cosa@,(t + kT) 180° with decreasing frequency in the low frequency range are accounted by the where T is the time width k is an integer constant (ad) Am(t)cosa,(t - kT) (a) coupling capacitors « eee is the continuous time variable (b) inter-electrode capacitors Mage no CN ; @, is the carrier frequency (c) current gain of BJT (f) m(t) is the modulating signal é A is the amplitude of the output (@) wiring capacitors signal ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 15 [P.7.0. 82. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. A system is said to be linear if it obeys the principle’ of superposition. 2. A system is said to be linear if it satisfies the homogeneity property. 3. A system is said to be non-linear if it obeys the principle of superposition. ‘Select the correct answer. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 83. An optical fiber has a bandwidth- distance product of 500 MHz-km. If a bandwidth of 85 MHz is required for a particular mode of transmission, the maximum distance that can be used between repeaters will be nearly (a) 59 km (b) 9-7 km (c) 135 km (d) 183 km 84. A single-mode fiber has a numerical aperture of 0:15. What is the maximum core diameter it could have for use with infrared light with a wavelength of 820 nm? (a) 84 um (b) 63 pm (c) 4:2 um (da) 21 pm ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 16 85. Consider the following statements : A time-invariant system is 1. also referred to equivalently as a shift-invariant system 2. a system for which a time shift or delay of the input sequence causes a corresponding shift in the output sequence Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (ad) Neither 1 nor 2 86. Consider the following statements : The Nyquist criteria 1. provide the theoretical basis for using the loop frequency response to determine the stability of a closed-loop system 2. may be used to assess stability from experimental data describing the system Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 87. Consider the following statements : Bode diagram is 1. a method for studying the stability of a linear feedback system 2. useful in developing engineering intuition regarding the effect of pole-zero placement on _ the frequency response L (jw) Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (da) Neither 1 nor 2 88. A unit impulse function is defined as O for t#0 ec for t=0 1. 8) -| 2. f° 8dt=1 3. [8 fo at 0 Which of the above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 17 89. Consider the characteristic equation s? +s(2+K)+4K =0 The open-loop transfer function of the system G(s)H{(s) is K(s+2) (a) s(s +4) K(s+4) (e) S(s +2) K(s+4) (c) (s+) K(s+2) (4) (s+4) 90. Which one of the following is not the correct property of signal flow graph? (a) The signal flow graph is applicable to non-linear time-invariant systems (b) The value of the variable at each node is equal to the algebraic sum of all signals entering at that node (c) The signal gets multiplied by the branch gain when it travels along it (d) The signal flow graph is not the unique property of the system [ P.T.O. 91. A closed-loop control system has the 94. For the first-order system with unit characteristic equation ramp function, the steady-state error is s?+4.5s2 +3-5s4+1-5=0 (a) ; As per Routh-Hurwitz criterion, the (b) O system will be () T (a) stable (a) 1 (b) unstable 95. A second-order system has a transfer function given by (c) absolutely unstable Gis) = 25 s? +8s+25 (a) semi-stable If the system initially at rest is subjected to a unit step input at t = 0, the second peak in the response will 92. In paging, the percentage of times that occur at a page number is found in the associative registers is called i de (h) =s (a) effective memory access time 3 .(b) effective access time (c) 2 s c) hit ratio (c) (a) a8 (a) register ratio 96. Which one of the following is not the correct advantage of frequency domain : er analysis? 93. Which one of the following is an effect of phase lead network? (a) Frequency response tests are simple to perform (a) Phase margin is decreased (b) ‘Thosedsegatenie whichedo: “act (b) Bandwidth is decreased have rational transfer function, : frequency response can _ be (c) The velocity constant is usually. precisely applied to them also decreased (c) Transfer function can be obtained (a) The slope of the magnitude curve from frequency response of the is reduced at the gain crossover gyetem frequency, with the result relative (ad) Frequency response methods can stability improves be applied for non-linear systems ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 18 97. In computer memory, for the non- 100. Which of the following applications are random access memory, an average characterized by the presence of many time Ty to read or write N bits is single-threaded processes? n (a) T, Sap (a) Java applications (b) R+ = (b) Multi-threaded native applications A (c) Multi-instance applications (c) n+R+ we A (d) Multi-process applications (a) Zn SOF T, 101. If cis the number of check bits required to achieve single-error correction with where n-bit data words, clearly the check bits Ris*tatetor traneler have 2° patterns that must distinguish between n+c possible error locations and the single error-free case, then c T, is average access time must satisfy the inequality of n is number of bits 98. A fundamental characteristic of a (a) memory is the order or sequence in which information can be accessed. If storage locations can be accessed. (b) 2° snt+e+1 in any order and access time is independent of the location being accessed, the memory is termed as 2° >n+c+1 (c) 2° 2>n+c+1 (a) sequential access memory (aM entc41 (b) random access memory (c) serial access memory ; 102. Which one of the following protocols (ad) optical memory allows the transaction of serial bit stream of any length without the 99. Which one of the following is a small, implication of character boundaries? fast memory that acts as a buffer for a slower, larger memory? (a) Bit-oriented protocol (a) SRAM (b) Check redundancy protocol (b) DRAM (c) Cache memory (c) Parity bit protocol (da) Flash memory ~ (d) Byte-oriented protocol ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 19 [Ee 103. In which one of the following data transfer modes, the CPU momentarily stops the task for processing, branches to a service program to process the 1/0 transfer, and then returns to the task 106. An employee might learn many job skills, and each job skill might be learned by many employees. Database designers label the relationship ‘EMPLOYEE learns SKILL’ as it ieiiall eormine? en Saeeey peeing (a) one-to-one relationship (a) Programmed I/O (b) many-to-many relationship ; (c) one-to-many relationship (b) Interrupt-initiated 1/0 ? 4 (d) many-to-one relationship (c) Direct memory access 107. In the 680X0 family, simple instructions are assigned short formats as follows : ADD.L D1, D2 (d) Hybrid memory transfer 104. A collection of blocks that logically belong on the disk but are being kept in memory for performance reason is This instruction denotes (a) register to register addition sl (b) register to memory addition (a) block cache (c) register to memory and register addition (b) stream cache (dq) memory to memory addition (c) segment 108. Which one of the following is true for (da) page atomicity with respect to transaction properties? (a) Requires that all operations of transactions be completed; if not transaction is aborted 105. A virus that could overwrite the master boot record or boot sector with devastating results is known as (b) Indicates the permanency of the (a). boot sector virus database’s consistent state (c) The results of the concurrent (b) bootstrap virus execution of several transactions (d) The data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used by a second transaction until the first one is completed (c) memory-resident virus (@) cavity virus ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 20 109. A pulse of a given frequency transmitted upward is received back after a period of 5 millisecond. If the value of c is 3x108 m/s, the virtual height of the reflecting layer will be (a) 650 km (b) 700 km (c) 750 km (a) 800 km 110. The velocity factor Vy with respect to transmission line wave propagation is (a) eB. c (o) 22 c a, ‘(c) =. 2V, at where Vp is actual velocity of propagation cis velocity of propagation through free space 111. A_ dielectric medium, in which the conduction current .is almost non- existent in comparison with the displacement current, may be treated as (a) homogeneous dielectric medium (b) imperfect dielectric medium _(c) perfect dielectric medium (d) isotropic dielectric medium ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 21 112. A load of pure resistance of 60 Q is to be connected through a quarter-wave line to a transmission line of characteristic impedance 100 Q If VSWR =1, the characteristic impedance of the quarter- wave line will be (a) 82-52 (b) 77-52 (c) 72:5 (d) 67-52 113. A lossless transmission line having characteristic impedance of 600Q is terminated by a resistance of 300. The voltage standing wave ratio in the line will be (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (a) 1 114. The antenna efficiency n (with regards to a radiation resistance) is fe: (aj; === 100 2P, in Prad (b) —**x100 ) > in (o) 2Frad x 100 in (a) SFrad x 100 in where P.aq is radiated power P,,, is input power [ P.T.O. 115. Which one of the following relations is 117. The EM wave of 1 GHz is radiated true for an angle of entrance 6 on the axis of core? vm? +2 +2 by an antenna to cover a distance of 100 km. If the velocity of propagation is 3x 108 m/s, the time taken by the wave to travel the above distance will be (a) sin®, = No (a) 369 ps ‌ 02- 2 ] -12 () sin®, = ‌ ‎ (b) 351 us ‎ 333 a (6) 148 (c) sino, = 772 No () 315 ps 52+2 1] + (0 91062 = ‎ No 118. The approximate -3 dB beam width for where 11] is index of refraction of core 112 is index of refraction of cladding No is index of refraction of external medium 116. When the cut-off frequency for 7 mode is 3 GHz, and the value of is 3x10!° cm/s, the broad wall dimension of a rectangular waveguide will be (a) 2cm (b) cm ( 4 cm (0 5 cm ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 22 a parabolic antenna in degrees is (a) 6= 5 ‎ ( ‎ (0) 3 where 2. is wavelength D is antenna mouth diameter 6 is beam width between half-power points (degrees) 119. The guide wavelength 4, for a cut-off frequency and frequency of operation is [3 (b) Ag = a ie Spee aa a pts? Xs TF where cis free space propagation velocity f is frequency of operation fc is cut-off frequency A broadside array operating at 100 cm wavelength consists of four half-wave dipoles spaced 50 cm. If each element carries radio frequency current in the same phase and of magnitude 0:5 A, and radiation resistance is 73 Q, the radiated power will be 120. (a) 68 W (b) 73 W () 78 W (d) 83W ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 23 121. Which one of the following, a polycrystalline material of high purity, is the raw material for the preparation of single-crystal silicon? (a) Electronic Grade Silicon (EGS) (b) Metallurgical Grade Silicon (MGS) (c) Float Zone Silicon (FZS) (d) Raw Silicon (RS) 122. For a 1000 wm long bond pad locus, the number of bond pads placed on a 100 um pitch along a bond pad will be (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 123. Which one of the following incorporates both the level sensitivity and the scan path approach using shift registers? (a) Built-in logic block observer (b) Built-in test (c) Level-sensitive scan design (a) Ipg test [ P.T.O. 124. In a reconstruction filter, if the output is. x(t) in time domain and C,X(f) in frequency domain with no frequency components above f;, and X(f) is zero for |f |= f,, then such signal is called (a) reconstructed (b) bandlimited (c) constructed (d) delimited 125. Fourier series exists only when the function f(t) is well-defined and single- valued, possesses finite number of discontinuities, and finite number of positive and negative maxima in the period T. These conditions are called (a) Parseval’s conditions (b) Blackman conditions (c) Chebyshev conditions (a) Dirichlet’s conditions 126. If what is x(n)? (a) > [8(n) + 2u(n— 1) (b) (5) [S(n) + 2u(n — 0) ic) (3) [8(n) - 2u(n- 1) (4) 5 18(r) ~ 2u(n — 0) ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 127. A first-order low-pass Butterworth active filter has a cut-off frequency of 10 kHz and unity gain at low frequency. The voltage transfer function magnitude at 12 kHz for the filter will be (a) 0:32 (b) 0-64 (c) 0-96 (a) 1:28 128. The filters that exhibit symmetry, have an odd-numbered filter length and are used in applications like decimation and interpolation are known as (a) half-band filters (b) full-band filters (c) bridge-band filters (d) multi-band filters 129. The IIR filters involve designing of (a) analog filter in analog domain and transforming into digital domain (b) digital filter in analog domain and transforming into digital domain (c) analog filter in digital domain and transforming into analog domain (d) digital filter in digital domain and transforming into analog domain 24 130. If a pulse sent to the target returns after |= 133. Which kind of deposition has 15pys, when the velocity of light is traditionally been done at _ higher 300 x 10° m/s, the distance of the temperatures to ensure that all the Si target will be atoms being deposited are incorporated into lattice sites in order to obtain (a) 425 km a single-crystal thin film? (b) 350 km (a) Epitaxial Si deposition (c) 2:25 km (b) Polysilicon deposition (a) 1:50 km (c) Silicon nitride deposition = (ad) Silicon dioxide deposition 131. Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) mode is commonly used in embedded system application for 134. Which one of the following layers defines the procedure and functions that physical devices and interfaces have to perform for transmission to occur? (a) controlling the speed of DC motors (b) serial communication : (a) Data link layer (c) counting the electrical pulses (b) Network layer (d) recording the arrival time of either a rising or falling pulse (c)- Physical layer 132. A chip with fewer transistors results into (a) Application layer lower cost, less heat and less power requirements. These features are very desirable in small battery-powered 135. Which one of the following carries embedded systems such as mobile multiple voice frequency circuits using phones. Which one of the following either frequency division multiplexed or architectures is used? synchronous time division multiplexed? (a) AMD (a) Subscriber (b) MIPS (b) Local loop (c) ARM ‘ (c) Exchange (a) TDP (a) Trunk ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 25 [Pr-O: 136. Five channels, each with a 100 kHz 138. The free space path loss L, incurred by bandwidth, are to be multiplexed an electromagnetic wave is together. If there is a need for a guard 2 band of 10 kHz between the channels (a) | 2 } to prevent interference, the minimum c bandwidth of the link will be 4 2nfD w (72) c (a) 540 kHz 2 D (c) an(2) c ‘(b) 510 kHz 2 ’ (a) an( ©) c (c) 470 kHz where c is velocity of light in free space is frequen (da) 440 kHz f ver D is distance 139. Which one of the following amplifiers is widely used in transponders to provide the final output power required 137. The entries in a CIDR routing table to the transmit antenna? contain 32-bit IP address and a 32-bit mask. The CIDR enables a technique called (b) Power amplifier (a) Travelling-wave tube amplifier (c) Two-stage wave tube amplifier -(a) supernetting (ad) Three-stage wave tube amplifier 140. Which one of the following systems of (b) esiin octal satellites is sometimes called ‘Internet ro} Z les in the Sky’? (a) Globalstar (c) deployment of CIDR (b) Teledesic (c) Iridium (a) logical packet flows (d) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 26 141. A directional antenna with 10 dB gain 143. The point on the earth vertically under radiates 500 watts. The receiving the satellite is referred to as the antenna at 15 km distance receives 2 microwatt. If there is a negligible ground and ionospheric reflection, the effective area of the receiving antenna will be nearly (b) meridian point (a) reference point (c) apparent point (a) 3-1 m? (d) sub-satellite point (b) 2:3 m? (c) 1:1 m? 144. The total reduction of power level in optical fiber cable, A(dB) is (d) 0-3 m? P, fa) 25log—out (a) a in 142. The time used for all civil timekeeping purposes, and is the time reference (b) 20log Pout. which is broadcast by the National Pn Bureau of Standards as a standard for setting clocks, is (c) 15log “ent in (a) Mean Time Coordinated (a) 10log Pout (b) Universal Time Coordinated Pin hh (c) Epoch Time Coordinated ey P,,, is cable input power (d) Real Time Coordinated Pout is cable output power ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 27 {aTs: Directions : Each of the following six (06) items consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’, You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below : Codes : (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I) (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is mot the correct explanation of Statement (I) (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (d) Statement (1) is false but Statement (II) is true 145. Statement (I) : . Stokes’ theorem gives relation between a double integral and a single integral, and is applied only to an open surface. Statement (II) : Gauss’ divergence theorem _ gives relation between a triple integral and a double integral, and is applied only to a closed surface. 146. Statement (I) : The ‘microwave junction can _ be defined as S-parameters or scattering parameters. Statement (II) : A scattering matrix is a square matrix which gives all the combinations of power relationships between the various input and output ports of a microwave junction. ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 28 147. Statement (I) : Electron lithography offers higher resolution than optical lithography. Statement (II) : Electron lithography has_ small wavelength of the 10-50 keV electrons. 148. Statement (I) : In communication network, the element of the network should be designed such that maximum power transfer takes place between the source to the load. Statement (II) : The maximum power is absorbed by one network from another network, when the impedance of one is the complex conjugate of the other. 149. Statement (I) : A network is two or more devices connected together through links. Statement (II) : A link is a communication pathway that transfers data from one device to another. 150. Statement (I) : Mode partition noise is a multiplicative noise in an optical fiber link. Statement (II) : Mode partition noise arises when the optical source emits _ several frequencies in a rapid succession. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 29 [ P.T.O. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 30 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 31 PPPS SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK wk ASNP-T-ELTE/60A 32 25SS—14,112