112. In terms of the Delegation of Financial Powers
113.
Rules, 2024, the Object Head “Office
Expenses” belongs to which one of the
following Object Classes ?
(a) Object Class 11 - Social Security of
Employees
(b) Object Class III - Goods and Services
(€) Object Class IV - Aid and Assistance
(d) Object Class V - Miscellaneous Revenue
Expenditure
The monetary limit up to which the loss due to
deficiencies and depreciation in the value of
stores (other than motor vehicles or motor
cycles) included in the stock and other
accounts including losses on food grains,
sugar, etc. can be written off in each case by a
Department of the Government of India, is :
(a) ₹10,00,000
(৮) ₹8,00,000
(૭ र6,00,000
(® ₹ 5,00,000
RFAW-M-PEP
114.
115.
(51-/)
Rule 10 of the Delegation of Financial Powers
Rules, 2024 deals with :
Appraisal and approval of Schemes or
(a)
Projects
(b) Waiver of Recovery of overpayment
made to Government Servants
(€) Indents, contracts and purchases
(d) Appropriation and Re-appropriation of
funds
As per the Delegation of Financial Powers
Rules, 2024, which one of the following Object
Heads is not included under the “Object Class
VII - Financial Assets” ?
(೩) Investment
(b) Subscription
Loans and Advances
(c)
(d) Infrastructural Assets
116.
117.
118.
RFAW-M-PEP
वित्तीय शक्तियों का प्रत्यायोजन नियम, 2024 के अनुसार,
व्यय करने की सामान्य शर्तों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से
कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं ই ?
(8) असामान्य व्यय को संस्वीकृति देने की शक्तियों का
प्रयोग करते समय, भारत सरकार के विभागों को उचित
सावधानी बरतनी चाहिए और नए कार्यक्षेत्रों டன
lines) या नई प्रकार की वस्तुओं पर व्यय की वृद्धि को
प्रतिबंधित करना चाहिए |
(b)
कर्तव्यों को करने के लिए नियुक्त कोई अधिकारी, उन
वित्तीय शक्तियों का प्रयोग नहीं कर सकता है जो उस
पद के पूर्ण पदधारी में निहित होती हैं |
वाहन किराये पर लेने हेतु किए जाने वाले व्यय के लिए
वित्तीय सीमाएँ और दिशा-निर्देश वित्त मंत्रालय द्वारा
जारी मौजूदा निर्देशों के अनुसार होंगे ।
विधिक प्रभारों पर होने वाले व्यय सामान्यतः विधि
और न्याय मंत्रालय की केवल पूर्व सहमति से ही किया
जाएगा, सिवाय उन प्रभारो के, जिनकी दरे समय-समय
पर विधि और न्याय मंत्रालय द्वारा अधिसूचित की
जाती हैं |
(८)
(6)
वित्तीय शक्तियों का प्रत्यायोजन नियम, 2024 के अनुसार,
सीमित निविदा संविदाओं के लिए भारत सरकार के किसी
विभाग के सचिव की वित्तीय शक्तियाँ क्या हैं 2
(a) ₹ 100 करोड़
(9) ₹50 करोड़
(6) ₹25 करोड़
(৫) ₹5 करोड़
वित्तीय शक्तियों का प्रत्यायोजन नियम, 2024 के अनुसार,
“किसी पूर्णतया अस्थायी संरचना” से तात्पर्य ऐसी संरचना से
है, जिसका अस्तित्व-काल (10) किससे अधिक नहीं ই?
(a) 1 वर्ष
യ) 2 वर्ष
(০) 3 वर्ष
(व) 5 वर्ष
अपने स्वयं के पद के अतिरिक्त किसी पद के वर्तमान |
119.
120.
(52-A)
सहायता-प्राप्त चिकित्सा परिचर्या योजना (स्कीम) के अधीन
विशेषज्ञ/नामिकागत चिकित्सक (empanelled doctor)
द्वारा जारी अनिवार्यता प्रमाण-पत्र के आधार पर, निम्नलिखित
किस कृत्रिम सहायक/साधन (artificial
aids/appliances) के संबंध में लागत की प्रतिपूर्ति की
जाएगी ?
1. नेबुलाइज़र मशीन
2. ग्लुकोमीटर (डायबीटिक गैंगरीन से पीड़ित मधुमेह
रोगी) |
3. स्पाइनल ब्रेस
4. सर्वाइकल कॉलर
5. व्हीलचेयर
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
(a) केवल 1 और 2
0১) केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5
ര) केवल 1, 3, 4 ओर 5
(ત) 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5
सहायता-प्राप्त चिकित्सा परिचर्या योजना (स्कीम) के संदर्भ में
निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. दीर्घकालीन चिकित्सा उपचार अनिवार्यतः अनुमोदित
अस्पताल से कराया जाना चाहिए ।
2. नामिका (पैनल) में सम्मिलित किसी विशेषज्ञ की
सलाह केवल किसी अनुमोदित चिकित्सक के परामर्श
से ही ली जाए।
3. बड़ी संख्या में परामर्श वाले व्यक्तिगत मामलों की
रिपोर्ट मंत्रालय में निर्णय के लिए भेजी जाएगी ۱
4. निवास पर चिकित्सा उपचार के लिए पूर्ण प्रतिपूर्ति
केवल मिशन/पोस्ट प्रमुखों और उनके हकदार परिवार
के सदस्यीं के मामले में स्वीकार्य होगी ।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 ओर 4
(0) केवल 3 और 4.
(০) केवल 1 और 2
(৫) केवल 1, 2 और 3
116.
117.
118.
Which one of the following statements
regarding general conditions for incurring
Expenditure in terms of the Delegation of
Financial Powers Rules, 2024, is not correct ?
(a) In exercising powers to sanction unusual
expenditure, Departments of Government
of India should exercise due care and
restrict the growth of expenditure on new
lines or new types of items.
An officer appointed to perform the
current duties of a post in addition to his
own cannot exercise financial powers
vested in the full-fledged incumbent of the
post.
(c) The financial limits and guidelines for
expenditure on conveyance hire would be
in accordance with the extant instructions
issued by the Finance Ministry.
Expenditure on legal charges 8811
ordinarily be incurred only with the
previous consent of the Ministry of Law
and Justice except for charges, the rates of
which are notified by the Ministry of Law
and Justice from time to time.
(b)
(d)
In terms of the Delegation of Financial Powers
Rules, 2024, what are the financial powers of a
Secretary of the Department of Government of
India for limited tender contracts ?
(8) ۴100 Crores
യ) ই 50 Crores
(০) ই 25 Crores
(ત) ₹ 5 Crores
As per Delegation of Financial Powers Rules,
2024, “a purely temporary structure” means a
structure, the life of which is not more than :
(8) lyear
(0) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(ત) 5 years
RFAW-M-PEP ( 53
- ^ )
119.
120.
In respect of which of the following artificial
aids/appliances, the cost would 1௦௦
reimbursable under Assisted Medical
Attendance Scheme subject to essentiality
certificate issued by specialist/empanelled
doctor ?
as Nebulizer machine
2. 61000789007 (diabetic patients suffering
from diabetic gangrene)
3. Spinal brace
Cervical Collar
5. Wheelchair
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(8) land 2 only
(9) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(০) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(ત) 1,2,3,4and5
Consider the following statements in the
context of Assisted Medical Attendance
Scheme :
1. Prolonged medical treatment should
mandatorily be in an approved hospital.
2. A specialist on panel may be consulted
only on the advice of an approved doctor.
3. Individual cases involving a large number
of consultations be reported to the
Ministry for decision.
4. Full reimbursement for medical treatment
at residence shall be admissible only in the
case of Heads of Missions/Posts and their
entitled family members.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(2) 1,2,3and4
(0) 3 ॐत 4 only
(€) 1809 2 only
(0) 1, 2 and 3 only
RFAW-M-PEP
सातवें केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग के वेतन मैट्रिक्स के अनुसार संशोधित वेतन - वेतन लेवल 7
छठे केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग के अनुसार संशोधन-पूर्व वेतनमान
पीबी-2 ₹ 9,300 - 34,800 + 4,600
संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन मैट्रिक्स मे | संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित | वेतन मैट्रिक्स में
वेतन वेतन वेतन वेतन
₹ तक ತ ₹ तक z
1 ಚಪ 1 କସ
17,470 44,900 31,590 81,200
17,970 46,200 | ஊஊ | 83,600
18,520 47,600 | 33,500 | 86,100
19,060 49,000 34,510 88,700
19,640 | 80500 | | ஊஊ | 91,400
تا | 52,000 36,610 94,100
20,850 53,600 37,700 96,900
21,470 క్ర | 38,830 99,800
22,140 56,900 40,000 1,02,800
22,800 58,600 41,200 1,05,900
| 2850 | 60,400" 42,450 1,09,100
24,200 092200 | 43,730 1,12,400
24,940 64,100 45,050 ` 1,15,800
25,680 66,000 46,420 1,19,300
| ல | 68,000 47,820 1,22,900
27,230 70,000 49,260 1,26,600
28,050 72,100 50,730 1,30,400
28,910 74,300 | 52.250 | 1,34,300
29,760 76,500 53,810 1,38,300
30,660 78,800 2 27 1,42,400
(54-A)
RFAW-M-PEP
Revised Pay as per Seventh CPC Pay Matrix - Pay Level 7
Pre-revised Pay as per Sixth CPC
PB-2 ₹ 9,300 - 34,800 + 4,600
Pre-revised Pay in Pre-revised Pay in
Pay drawn Pay Matrix Pay drawn Pay Matrix
up tot ۳ up ۴ و
+ ଜା 1 ಇಷ
17,470 44,900 31,590 81,200
17,970 46,200 Se | 88,600
18,520 47,600 కా 86,100
19,060 49,000 34,510 88,700
19,640 | 50,500 | | ஹஹ | 91,400
छुन्छ SS | 52000 | 36,610 94,100
20,850 | ஸை | 53,600 37,700 96,900
21,470 | ஹை | 38,830 99,800
22,140 56,900 40,000 1,02,800
22,800 58,600 41,200 1,05,900
| 9800 | 60,400 42,450 1,09,100
24,200 69200 | 43,730 1,12,400
24,940 64,100 శ్ 2 ۳م 1,15,800
25,680 66,000 46,420 1,19,300
| ல | 68,000 47,820 1,22,900
27,230 70,000 49,260 1,26,600
28,050 72,100 50,730 1,30,400
28,910 74,300 | ജ്ജ | 1,34,300
29,760 76,500 53,810 1,38,300
30,660 78,800 55,400 1,42,400
(55-&)
कच्चे काम के लिए जगह
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
RFAW-M-PEP (56-A)
कच्चे काम के लिए जगह
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
RFAW-M-PEP (57-A)
कच्चे काम के लिए जगह
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
RFAW-M-PEP ( 58 - ^ )
कच्चे काम के लिए जगह
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
RFAW-M-PEP (59-A)
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
T.B.C. : RFAW-M-PEP Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
Paper II
(Procedure and Practice, Categories II and V)
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 150
4.
5.
10.
INSTRUCTIONS
IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark
on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
All items carry equal marks.
Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate. १
After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
ઊં) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question. *
(iii) If a question is left blank, 1.6., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
ध्यान दें : अनुदेशो का हिन्दी रूपान्तर इस पुस्तिका के प्रथम पृष्ठ पर छपा है |
RFAW-M-PEP (60-A)
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