QP-EnggServcPrelExam-24-ELECTRICAL-ENGINEERING-190224

Engineering Services (P) Examination, 2024 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : PNGE-D-ETE Test Booklet Series Serial No. 1010441 TEST BOOKLET Paper—IlI ( ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING ) Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300 2. 7. 10. . You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. . This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. . You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO 1 What" isthe value of | @)? dz, along 3. The numbers examined, the mean weight and the standard deviation in each group of examination by three (a) 5 (2-i) medical examiners are given below. 3 What is the standard deviation of the the line y= x /2? 1 entire data when grouped together? “ ‡(2- 0) Med. exam.| Nos. examined | 1767) wt.| SD (Ib) 4 7 (0) (211) (10) A 21 113 8 ୭ કે ସାର୍‌ z 2. The following is the frequency 2 ... 115 distribution of a random sample of weekly earnings of 509 employees : (0 8:183 19 Weekly earning | No. of employees (b) 7-746 16 = 7-152 10 12 6 14 10 () 6-981 19 16 15 18 4. The solution for 20 42 4 22 75 24 90 "4 26 79 28 55 30 36 32 26 (0) = € 1 ( 521 + 2 sin 2t) 34 19 + €! {63 cos2t + 4 sin 21 36 13 38 9 (0) x = € 1 ( cos4t + ‎ sin4t) 40 7 + €! ( cos4t + 4 sin4t) What is the average weekly earning? (9 x=e'(q cost + ‎ sint) % 0 + €! (63 cost + ‎ sint) (0) 24-87 (0 2861 (व) ८ = € (लु ୦୦୫ + ஒண்டி (0 20-74 + €* (3 cost + 4 sint) PNGE-D-ETE/53A 2 5. What is the deflection u(x, y,t) of the square membrane with a=b and c=1, if the initial velocity is zero and the initial deflection is f (× 9) = Asinnxsin2ny? (a) Asinnxsin2ny () Asinnxsin2nysin (< 3 nt) (0) Asinnxsin2nytan(V6 nt) () Asinnxsin2nycos(V5 nt) 6. If u=xlogxy, where ` × 3 + 3 + 3‎ = 1, what is du /dx? (0) du/dx = 108 xy- x(x? + y)/y(y? +x) (0) du/dx = 0 . 5 +108 xy - x(x? +2y)/yly? +x) ( du/dx =2+log xy = x(x? + y)/y(y? +2x) () du/dx = 1+log xy - x(x? + ) / ( +x) PNGE-D-ETE/53A What is the particular integral of (23 + 1)y=cos(2x - 1)? 1 (a) ~ - 1) - Ssin(2x ¬ 1] (b) - 1) - 6cos(2x - 1] ( [cos(2x - 1) - 8sin(2x - 1] () 2 [sin(2x - 1) - 4 510(2× - 1] 8. Let X be a Poisson variate such that P[X = 2] = ‎ 2[± = 4] + 90 [ = 6] Then E[X] is equal to (a) 1 (b) € ( 1082 1 5 9. A random variable X takes values 0, 1, 2 3 -- with probability proportional x to (x +1) (2) . Then P[X <2] is 1 (a) 225 503 (b) 911 608 (c) 625 11 6) 5 (.7.. 10. A die is thrown as long as necessary for 13. How 15 J-K flip-flop created from a 6 to turn up. Given that 6 does not S-R latch? turn up at the first throw. What is the probability that more than four throws (a) By adding more inputs are necessary? (a) 125 (b) By replacing the S and R inputs 216 with NAND gates (b) 121 323 (c) By connecting the inputs to the 271 outputs 6 5353 341 9 (4 By changing the clock input a (0) 19 11. If A and B are independent events and 14. How many select input lines are there 14 = P[B|A] = 2 then P[AUB}] is in 1-to-8 demultiplexer? 2 (a) 2 (a) 5 3 (b) 1 ‎ = (b) 7 5 © 4 ‌ ( 5 (0 3 3 ars (0) 5 12. The solution of the initial value problem 15. How many comparators and resistors are 2 used in n-bit flash A-to-D converter , / _ 6y=0; (0 = 6, 0 = 2 respectively? dx 18. (0 2” and 27 - 1 x 72 (a) 2” + 36 2" and 27 +1 (b) ex = 27% n n (c) 4e2* + 28134 (c) 2" + 1 2 () €> (9771 834) (0 27 - 1 and 2” PNGE-D-ETE/53A 4 16. What is the percentage resolution of a 4-bit R-2R ladder DAC, which has a reference voltage of 4:5 V? (a) 625% (b) 667% (c) 7:25% (d) 7-67% 17. Consider the following statements regarding successive approximation ADC : 1. The output data can be taken out of the converter either in series or in parallel. 2. The circuit is less complex compared to ramp ADC. 3. As the conversion time is not dependent on the analog input, so it is comparatively faster. Which of the above statements is/are 18. What are the key properties of an op-amp which plays an important role in designing op-amp_ operated active filters? (a) (b) (c) (a) High output impedance, low input impedance and the possibility of having signal amplification to the desired level High input impedance, low output impedance and the possibility of having signal amplification to the desired level High output impedance, low input impedance and the possibility of having signal amplification to the higher level only High input impedance, low output impedance and the possibility of having signal amplification to the lower level only 19. Which one of the following stores all data written to and read from memory? correct? (a) 1 and 2 (a) (b) 2 only (b) (c) 3 only (c) (a) 1 and 3 (a) PNGE-D-ETE/53A , 2 ae Instruction register Memory buffer register Memory address register Status register [ P.T.O. 20. What does ‘STA address’ stand for in 8085 microprocessor? (a) Copy the data byte at the memory location specified by the 16-bit address into the accumulator (b) Copy the data from the source to the destination location specified by the 16-bit address (c) Copy the data from the destination to the source location specified by the 16-bit address (a) Copy the data from _ the accumulator to the memory location specified by the 16-bit address 21. An AM commercial broadcast receiver is operating in a frequency band of 535 kHz to 1605 kHz with an input filter factor of 54. What are the bandwidths at the low and high ends of RF spectrum respectively? (a) 100 kHz and 29-63 kHz (b) 10 kHz and 2:96 kHz (c) 10 kHz and 29-63 kHz (a) 100 kHz and 2:96 kHz PNGE-D-ETE/53A 22. Consider the following statements regarding digital communication : 1. Digital signals can be coded to yield extremely low error rates and low fidelity. 2. Digital signals are easier to encrypt for security and privacy. 3. Digital signal storage is expensive. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (a) 1 and 3 23. Consider the following statements regarding Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) : 1. TDM is readily implemented with high-density VLSI circuitry. 2. TDM synchronization is less demanding than that of suppressed- carrier FDM. 3. TDM crosstalk immunity does not depend on the transmission band- width. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 24. What is net baseband bandwidth in Frequency-Division Multiplexing? (a) It is the sum of the modulated message bandwidths and the guard bands (b) It is the product of the modulated message bandwidths and the guard bands i xt As the value obtained by subtracting modulated message bandwidths from the guard bands (d) It is the product of the modulating message bandwidths and_ the modulated message 25. During serial transmission, a group of 512 sequential 12-bit data words is transmitted in 0-016s. What is the speed of transmission? (a) 384 kbps (b) 384 bps (c) 6-84 kbps (d) 6:84 bps PNGE-D-ETE/53A 26. What is the property of an isotropic material that must be satisfied? (a) (b) (c) (a) 27. What It has the same electric properties for the various directions of appliance of the electric field It has the different electric properties for the various directions of appliance of the electric field It has the different electric properties for the same direction of appliance of the electric field It has the same electric properties for the opposite directions of appliance of the electric field is the order of resistivity of conductive material? (a) (b) (c) (da) 10-° 2m to 10° Q-m 10° Om to 10° Qm 10719 O-m to 108 Q-m 107? 2m to 10!2 2m [ P.T.O. 28. What are the properties of good insulating material? (a) Low dielectric strength, volume resistivity of high value and very low dissipation factor (b) Low dielectric strength, volume resistivity of low value and very low dissipation factor (c) Low dielectric ‘strength, volume resistivity of low value and high dissipation factor (a) High dielectric strength, volume resistivity of high value and very low dissipation factor 29. What is the value of the Curie temperature of iron? (a) About 1043 K (b) About 1555 K (c) About 1422 K (da) About 1322 K 30. Which one of the following is the correct relationship among the Curie temperatures of Fe, Ni and Co? (a) (D/d) (Ni) Curie < (D/d) (Fe) Curie <(D/d) (Co) Curie (b) (D/d) (Ni) Curie <(D /d) (Co) Curie < (D/d) (Fe) Curie (c) (D/d) (Co) Curie <(D /d) (Ni) Curie <(D/d) (Fe) Curie (d) (D/d) (Fe) Curie <(D/d) (Ni) Curie < (D/d) (Co) Curie PNGE-D-ETE/53A 31. What are the important characteristics that must be satisfied for the materials used to build permanent magnets? (a) Low permeability, high coercive force and high Curie temperature (b) Low permeability, high coercive force and low Curie temperature (c) High permeability, high coercive force and high Curie temperature (a) High permeability, low coercive force and low Curie temperature 32. What are the important characteristics that must be satisfied for the materials used to build core of the transformer? (a) High permeability, low hysteresis and high eddy current losses (b) High permeability, low hysteresis and eddy current losses (c) High permeability, high hysteresis and eddy current losses (ad) Low permeability, low coercive force and low Curie temperature 33. What are the nominal values of drop in potential across conducting silicon diodes, Schottky diodes and _light- emitting diodes respectively? (a) (b) (¢) (d) 0-6 to 0-7 volt, 0-2 V and 1:4 V 0°6 to 0-7 volt, 1:2 V and 0:2 V 0-6 to 0-7 volt, 2:2 V and 14 V 0°6 to 0-7 volt, 0:2 V and 5-4 V 34. Which one of the following statements is correct related to extrinsic and degenerate semiconductors? (a) (b) (¢) (4) Lightly and moderately doped semiconductor is referred to as extrinsic and when it is doped to such high levels that it acts more like a conductor than a semiconductor, it is referred to as degenerate. Heavily doped semiconductor is referred to as extrinsic and when it is doped to such high levels that it acts more like a conductor than a semiconductor, it is. referred to as degenerate. Moderately doped semiconductor is referred to as extrinsic and when it is doped to such low levels that it acts more like a conductor than a semiconductor, it is referred to as degenerate. Lightly doped semiconductor is referred to as extrinsic and when it is doped to such low levels that it acts more like a conductor than a semiconductor, it is referred to as degenerate. PNGE-D-ETE/53A 35. What is an optoisolator? (a) (b) (c) (d) LED is paired with a photodiode or phototransistor in the same package and it allows DC coupling LED is paired with a silicon diode in the same package and it allows AC coupling LED is paired with a photodiode or phototransistor in the same package and it does not allow DC coupling LED is paired with a photodiode or phototransistor in the same package and it does not allow AC coupling 36. Which one of the following is correct related to Type-l along with the superconductors critical transition temperature (T,)? (a) (b) (c) (a) Lead (Pb) of 4:15 K, Mercury (Hg) of 7:196 K and Aluminium (Al) of 1:175 K Lead (Pb) of 7-196 K, Mercury (Hg) of 4:15 K and Aluminium (Al) of 1-175 K Lead (Pb) of 1:175 K, Mercury (Hg) of 415 K and Aluminium (Al) of 7-196 K Lead (Pb) of 7-196 K, Mercury (Hg) of 1:175 K and Aluminium (Al) of 415 K [ P.T.O. 37. Organic superconductors are composed 39. Let X(eJ) be the Fourier transform of the of signal 2072 7, 012} 0; - 1}, (a) both an electron donor (the planar : where -3 7 < 7. What is the value of organic molecule) and an electron i the following? acceptor (a non-organic anion) 2 ^ {> (b) an electron donor (the planar | dw organic molecule) only (a) 287 (c) an electron acceptor (a non-organic anion) only (b) 2567 (0) both an electron donor ( non- () 3167 organic anion) and an electron acceptor (the planar organic (0) 3567 molecule) 40. What is the inverse Fourier transform 38. If the input signal is ( = ‎ Of the following? 7 then what is the energy of the signal? 227] =| 24 0 < @5 # (Assume < ) -2j, -7% < ‎ 0 = 7 2 ‎ { (a) 7 (a) 1+ cos( 7 1) us 2 77 ~ 2 (77 (0) a ‌ 3 | (+ ‎ : 2n 6 nn 4 (0) = (0) 249 [£) (2 77 2 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 10 41. If x(n)=5(n-1)+5(n+1), what is the DTFT value for the given signal? (0 sin(®) () cos(o) ( 2sin(o) () 2005(0) 42. If x(n) =cos(@pn) 1/1), then what is the DTFT of the signal? (a) ` †[8 (0) ¬ 00) + 8 (0) + ©0)] () ` †[8 ( ¬ 00) ¬ 8 (0) + ©0)] (c) 7 + 72 [8 (© ¬ 00) + 8 (© + ] (0 72 + 7[8(0- 00) + 8 (0) + 0)] 43. What are the initial and final values of y(t) respectively, if transform is its Laplace = 10(2s + 3) s(s? +25+ 5) (a) 4 and 1 (b) 1 and 6 ( 3 and 5 (0) 0 and 6 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 11 44. If the function x(t) = ‌) then what is the total area under the function? (a) 28 (b) 40 (c) 70 (0) 45. If x(t) = 8 (30 30, the ‌ the associated ROC for the function of time respectively? (a) {=} Ris}> 3 then what transform are Laplace 3 (b) , Ris} < 3 2 ( 5, Ris} < 0 , ‏ (2.1.0. 46. Consider a random variable X with a uniform p.d.f. on [-4, ]. Assume that the random variable Y = X?, 1.6., 90) - 72. What is the value of E(Y)? 1 (a) 4 . )6( 47. What is the relationship between H(1) and 1300) from the N-point DFT of hn) = € 5, 0575 ? (Take N= 3) (a) 105 / H() = £" (2) (0 H(2)=2H()) (0 72 + £) = 0 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 12 48. What is the autocorrelation of the energy signal x(t) = € (? (a) 5 for ૬૬૬૦ (b) Set for -= < † < = 1-2 (©) 26 for -= <? < = dead for - < † < = 2 49. The response of an LTI system to u(t) is g(t) = 22 - 51) u(t). What is the response, when x(t) = 1? (a) 0 (b) 2 272 07 50. What is the value of x(t) for (>0 from the given Laplace transform? 52 + 35+ 3 1 = ... (5 + 1 (5 ¬ 2 (5 + 5) (6) + ze برای 000007 ‎ +i 00. ( Jt, Seay Bee 12 21 28 (0) 2057 12 214 28 51. What is the value of 48 in the network shown in the figure? 10V ( 0-86 (0) 096 (8 066 () 076% 52. Five resistances of 10 each are connected between terminals A and B as shown in the figure. What is the total resistance between terminals A and B? 10Q Ao 2-7 ( 10 | 8 108 | 109 2 102 10 () 5Q ( 102 (9 159 () 20 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 13 53. The Thevenin equivalent circuit voltage and resistance for the given circuit between terminals a and b are respectively 2 10Q 168 2 ^ oa 10Q 50 24 ob () 49.2 , 10 2 (b) -49-2 , 15 ( 49:2 , 20 () 492 , 20 54. What is the maximum power that can be delivered to the variable resistor R in the circuit? Q 25 0 607() ie 59 (a) 1577 W 1877 W ( 19°77 W (0) 20-77 W (.7.. 55. Consider the following statements 57. The value of the power consumed by regarding the initial conditions for the balanced star-connected load in inductor and capacitor : terms of the balanced delta-connected load i 1. If there is no current flowing ‌ through the inductor at t=07, £ the inductor will act as an open (a) Py "| circuit ‎ ‎ 2. If there is no voltage across the capacitor at £ = 0 , the capacitor (b) Py -[3 Pal will act as an open circuit at ¢ = 01. 3. If a current of value 10 flows through the inductor at 1-0, (0) Py [74] the inductor can be regarded as a current source of 70 ampere at {= 01. (0) Py = [30] Which of the above statements is/are correct? . 58. The 2 parameters of two-port network are Z,,;=20Q, 222 = 30.0, ‌ 11 22 {> 395 212 = 221 = 10 8. The corresponding (c) 1 and 3 only values of ABCD parameters are () 1,2 and 3 (a) 50 3 56. What is the value of voltage V, shown in the circuit? 3 50 7 ‌] 76 4z90° A 09 == 32 2 40 |0.1 3 (a) -8 (b) 2. 50 (6) 1 1 ( 241% (0 -24 : PNGE-D-ETE/53A 14 59. What is the value of equivalent inductance of the network shown in the figure? 1H (a) 19H (b) 21H () 23H (0 25H 60. An initially uncharged 1 mF capacitor has the current shown in the figure. What is the voltage across it at t = 2ms? 18 100 + t (ms) | a a+ (a) 50 mV (b) 100 mV (c) 200 mV () 250 mV PNGE-D-ETE/53A 15 61. Two perfectly coupled coils each of 1H self-inductance are connected in parallel so as to aid each other. What is the value of overall inductance? ( OH (b) 05 H © 1H 2H‏ 62. What is the value of magnetic field on the axis that is perpendicular to the plane containing a circular loop of current shown in the figure using the Biot-Savart law? 2 | (0) 885 | | 2nR” J (b) 54 = | ‎ 2nR? | (9 Be)= ( 2740“ | ‎ 8005 L 2 | 1.7.. 63. What is the transfer function, G(s) = C(s)/R(s), corresponding to the following differential equation? 229 + 4 2: 64 (+ (a) Gls) = 52 + 6544 53 + 452 + 65 + 3 2 55 + 5544 . 53 + 452 + 65 + 3 ( 29) | 53 + 552 + 65 + 3 52 + 65 + 4 (0 6‎ > 55 +452 + 55 + 3 64. What are the steady-state errors for the inputs of 3u(t), 3tu(t) and 3t?u(t) respectively to the system shown in the figure, where the function u(t) is the unit step? 2 222 120(s+2) Cs) 29) (5+4) 65. What are the steady-state errors for the inputs of 40, 4840 and 4t?u(t) respectively to the system shown in the figure, where the function u(t) is the unit step? ) +P) Als) 100(s+2)(s+6) (5) ‎ > (a) 0, ‌ and’ (b) 0, _ and 1 ০% ০০ తంతే... © 25 1 0 > = and 0 © > ani 66. The transfer function of the given circuit shown in the figure by using Laplace transform is 3 ~ d = (a) > an (0) > and (0 = and Ole ( = = and = PNGE-D-ETE/53A 1 Lc s* +—s+— 4 Le rae . 713 40 1 5” +Rs+— GC EC (0) 70) 2 5” + --5+-- L 1 7 55 +—s+— Ee 67. What is the status of the closed-loop transfer function 10 5 +25+ 652 + 4453 4251 75) = using Routh-Hurwitz criterion? (a) Unstable (2) Marginally stable (c) Stable () Neither stable nor unstable 68. What is/are the value(s) of K for which the system is stable for the characteristic equation 52 -(& +2)s+ (2K + 1) = 0? (a) -(K+2)>0 and (2K+5)>0 ( K=-2and £ = -2.5 (© K<-2o0r & > -2-5 (0 -( + 2) < 0 and (28 + 5) > 0 69. Which one of the following is the correct transfer function obtained from the Nyquist diagram shown in the figure? ¬ 0 > > (0 = Re @=0 (a) G(s)=1/s (b) = ( ©(9 = 1/52 () = 5 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 17 70. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding root locus technique? (a) It can be used to analyze and design the effect of loop gain upon the system’s transient response and stability. It cannot be used to analyze and design the effect of loop gain upon the system’s transient response and stability. It can be used to analyze and design the effect of loop gain upon the system’s transient response only. It can be used to analyze and design the effect of loop gain upon the system’s stability only. 71. The transfer function of a single, passive lag-lead network is ¬. He (a) ०७८७ = ણ ति 1 + 7 ) (6) ‎ / Gea! 5141 (© G,(s)= || + =; / f + | |) = i iM () = + 7 / [ + 7 | 72. Which one of the following statements 74. If the initial-state vector, X(to), can be is correct regarding state variable found from u(t) and y(t), measured over approach over transfer function a finite interval of time from ty, then approach? the system is (a) The state variable can be fed back, it considers the initial conditions (a) unobservable and state model of a system is unique. (b) observable (b) The state variable can be fed back, it considers the initial conditions (c) Not possible to find the and state model of a system is not observability unique. (c) The state variable cannot be fed (a) neither unobservable nor back, it considers the initial observable conditions and state model of a system is unique. (d) The state variable can be fed back, 75. The en-loo: transfer function of it neglects the initial conditions SFY Pee j a unity feedback system is and state model of a system is 20 not unique. GS) = say What is the time Tesponse subjected to a step input 73. What is the controllability of the state X(s) = 0-8/s? equation for the given system? fica 0 (a) 0-76(1—e7t/100) x=Ax+Bu=| 0 -1 O|x+4+/1lu 040822 1 (b) 0-76(1-e7t/0-01) (a) The system is controllable (b) The system is not controllable (c) 0-95(1-e*t /100) (c) It is not possible to find the controllability -t/0-0 (@) Itis neither controllable nor stable (a) 0-95(1-e ef ) PNGE-D-ETE/53A 18 76. A set of independent current 78. The coil of a moving-coil voltmeter is measurements is recorded as 10-03 A, 40 mm long and 30 mm wide, and has 10:10 A, 10:11 A and 10-08 A. What 100 turns on it. The control spring are the values of average current and exerts a torque of 240x 10-6 N-m when range of error respectively? the deflection is 100 divisions on full scale. If the flux density of the magnetic (a) 10-08 A and + 0:03 A field in the air gap is 1:0 Wb/m?, what is the value of the resistance that (b) 10-08 A and + 0-04 A must be put in series with the coil to give one volt per division by neglecting the resistance of the voltmeter coil? (c) 10:09 A and + 0:04 A (a) 5kQ (ad) 10:09 A and +003 A (b) 15 ka (c) 50kQ 77. During the measurement of low (a) 75kQ resistance using a potentiometer, the following readings were obtained : 79. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding moving-iron The voltage drop across the low A instrument when voltages or currents resistance under test = 0-4221V are measured? The voltage drop across a 0:1 standard resistance = 1-0235 V (a) It indicates the same value of the measurement for both ascending What are the values of unknown and descending values. resistance and current respectively? (b) It indicates the higher value of the measurement for ascending values. (a) 0:041208 Q and + 10-235 A (c) It indicates the higher value of (b) 0:031208 Q and + 10:235 A the measurement for descending values. (c) 0:021208 Q and + 10:235 A (d) It indicates the lower value of the measurement for descending (d) 0041208 Q and + 11:235 A values. PNGE-D-ETE/53A 19 [ P.T.O. 80. A moving-coil instrument gives a full- scale deflection of 10 mA, when the potential difference across its terminals is 100 mV. What is the value of shunt resistance for a full-scale deflection corresponding to 100 A? (a) 0-00012 (b) 0-001 (c) 0-012 (d) 0-12 81. The power in a three-phase circuit is measured with the help of 2 wattmeters. The reading of one of the wattmeters is positive and that of the other is negative. The magnitudes of readings are different. What is the value of the power factor of the circuit under this condition? (a) 0:5 (lagging) (b) Zero (lagging) (c) Less than 0:5 (lagging) (d) Unity 82. What is the range of frequency measured by the typical frequency meter? (a) 1 MHz (b) 10 Hz (c) 1 kHz (ad) 1 GHz PNGE-D-ETE/53A 20 83. A 34-digit DVM has an accuracy specification of + 0-5 percent of reading +1 digit. What is the possible error in volt, when the instrument is reading 5:00 V on the 10 V range? (a) 0015 V (b) 0-025 V (c) 0-035 V (d) 0-045 Vv 84. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding potentiometric recorders? (a) A sensitivity of 4 VB/mm is attained with an error of less than + 0-25% with a bandwidth of 0°8 Hz. (b) A sensitivity of 10 VB/mm is attained with an error of less than + 0:35% with a bandwidth of 0:9 Hz. (c) A of 5S VB/mm is attained with an error of less than + 0:25% with a bandwidth of 1 Hz. sensitivity (a) A sensitivity of 8 VB/mm_ is attained with an error of less than + 0-45% with a bandwidth of 0-8 Hz. 85. If the bandwidth of an oscilloscope is given as direct current to 10 MHz, what is the fastest rise time a sine wave can have to be accurately reproduced by the instrument? (a) 35 ns (b) 17:5 ns (c) 0-175 us (a) 35 us 86. What is the key factor that must be considered while selecting a transducer for a particular application? (a) Only the input characteristics should be considered (b) Only the output characteristics should be considered (c) Only the transfer characteristics should be considered (d) Input, output and __ transfer characteristics should be considered PNGE-D-ETE/53A 21 87. Ifa transducer has an output impedance of 1Q and a load resistance of 1kQ, it behaves as (a) a constant current source (b) a constant voltage source (c) a constant power source (d) a constant energy source 88. If a 50 Hz, 220/400 V, 50 kVA, single- phase transformer operates on 220 V, 40 Hz supply with secondary winding, then what about the core losses of the transformer? (a) The hysteresis losses and the eddy current losses of the transformer increase (b) The hysteresis losses and the eddy current losses of the transformer decrease (c) The hysteresis losses remain same whereas the eddy current losses decrease (a) The whereas the eddy current losses hysteresis losses increase remain same [P.T.0. 89. An 1100/415 V, delta-star transformer 91. The lap-connected armature winding is suitable for feeds power to a 30 kW, 415 V, three-phase induction motor having an efficiency of 90% and full-load p.f. 0°833. What are the rating of the transformer and line current of low- voltage side respectively? (a) 35 kVA, 55-65 A (b) 40 kVA, 55:65 A (c) 40 kVA, 45-65 A (d) 45 kVA, 55:65 A (a) (b) (c) (a) low-voltage and high-current generators low-voltage and low-current generators high-voltage and low-current generators high-voltage and _high-current generators 92. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding interpoles of DC machines? 90. The kVA rating of an ordinary two- winding transformer increases when connected as an _ autotransformer because (a) transformation ratio increases (b) secondary current increases (c) energy is transferred both inductively and conductively (d) secondary voltage increases PNGE-D-ETE/53A 22 (a) (b) () (a) They are small yoke-fixed poles spaced in between the main poles. Their polarity, in the case of generators, is the same as that of the main pole ahead. They are connected in parallel with the armature so that they carry part of the armature current. They automatically neutralize not only reactance voltage but cross- magnetization as well. 93. A DC series motor, running a fan at 1000 r.p.m., takes 50 A from 250 V mains. The armature plus field resistance is 06 Q If an additional resistance of 4:4 Q is inserted in series with the armature circuit, what is the value of the motor speed when the field flux is proportional to the armature current? (a) 621 r.p.m. (b) 641 r.p.m. (c) 651 r.p.m. (d) 661 r.p.m. 94. A three-phase, 60 Hz, 25 hp, wye- connected induction motor operates at a shaft speed of almost 1800 r.p.m. at no load and 1650 r.p.m. at full load. What are the values of speed of the rotor field with respect to the rotor itself and with respect to the stator field respectively? (a) 150 r.p.m. and 1800 r.p.m. (b) 1650 r.p.m. and O r.p.m. (c) 150 r.p.m. and 0 r.p.m. (d) 1800 r.p.m. and 150 r.p.m. PNGE-D-ETE/53A 23 95. The rotor input of a_ three-phase induction motor running with a slip of 10% is 100 kW. What is the value of the gross power developed by the rotor? (a) 10 kw (b) 80 kw (c) 90 kw (d) 95 kw 96. What is the value of percentage voltage regulation of an alternator having 0°75 leading power factor loads, when the no-load induced e.m.f. is 2400 V and the rated terminal voltage is 3000 V? (a) 20% (b) -20% (c) 25% (d) -25% [P.T.O. 97. Two identical alternators are running in parallel and carry equal loads. What will happen if the excitation of one alternator is increased without changing its steam supply? (a) It will keep supplying almost the same load (b) kVAR supplied by it would decrease (c) kVA supplied by it would decrease (ad) Its power factor will increase 98. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bar has, at constant full load, 100% excitation and unity power factor. When there is a change in excitation only, the armature current will have (a) leading power factor with under- excitation (b) lagging power factor with over- excitation (c) leading power factor with over- excitation (d) no change in power factor PNGE-D-ETE/53A 24 100. Consider the 99. What are the values of maximum step rate for permanent-magnet and variable-reluctance stepper motors respectively? (a) 300 pulses per second and 1200 pulses per second (b) 700 pulses per second and 1200 pulses per second (c) 1200 pulses per second and 1200 pulses per second (a) 300 pulses per second and 300 pulses per second following statements regarding ideal transformer : 1. The winding resistances of the primary and secondary of the transformer are zero. 2. The eddy current loss of the trans- former is zero. 3. The core of the transformer is having a finite permeability. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (ad) 1 and 2 101. Consider the following characteristics of Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) processor : 1. It is having a small number of instructions. 2. Itis having less addressing modes. 3. Most instructions can manipulate operands in the memory. 4. Control unit is microprogrammed. Which of the above characteristics is/are not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (@) 3 and 4 102. In which of the following processors, the designer can add easily new instruction without changing the architecture of the processor? (a) CISC processor only (b) RISC processor only (c) Both CISC and RISC processors (d) Neither CISC processor nor RISC processor PNGE-D-ETE/53A 25 103. Which one of the following is used to increase the performance of CPU, that means executing more instructions in less time? (a) Sequencing (b) Pipelining (c) Scheduling (a) Spooling 104. Which one of the following buses was designed to improve bandwidth and decrease latency in computer systems? (a) PCI bus (b) VESA bus (c) EISA bus (d) ISA bus 105. Consider the following functions of Root Hub : 1. It performs power distribution to the devices. 2. It enables and disables the ports. 3. It reports status of each port to the user. Which of the above functions is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3 [P.7.0. 106. In Double Data Rate SDRAM, if 100 MHz 108. How many pages are in the disk, if the clock rate and 64 bits data bus transfers data, then what is the approximate transfer rate for DDR3? (a) 1600 MB/s (b) 6400 MB/s (c) 3200 MB/s (d) 800 MB/s 107. What is the approximate rotational delay if the disk drive has 8 surfaces, each surface has 1024 tracks, each track has 64 sectors, each sector can hold 512 bytes and rotation speed of 6000 r.p.m.? (It is assumed that the sector is away from head half of the track) (a) 0-005 s (b) 0-050 s (c) 0-500 s (d) 0-505 s PNGE-D-ETE/53A 26 capacity of a virtual disk is 2 MB and each page is 2 kB in a byte-addressable system? (a) 2048 (b) 1024 (c) 100 (a) 500 109. Which one of the following is used to keep the track of program statistics that may be a valuable tool for system administrators who wish to reconfigure the system to improve computing services? (a) Programming table (b) Spooling (c) Logging (a) Making file 110. If communicating processes reside in a temporary queue and the queue has a maximum length of zero, then the link cannot have any messages waiting in it. The sender must block until the recipient receives the message. In what way can such queues be implemented? (a) Bounded capacity (b) Unbounded capacity (c) Non-zero capacity (ad) Zero capacity 111. Consider the following set of processes that arrive at time 0 with the length of the CPU burst given in milliseconds : Process Burst time PB 24 Pp 3 P3 3 What is the average waiting time under the Round-Robin Scheduling, if we use a time quantum of 4 milliseconds? (a) 5-66 milliseconds (b) 3-50 milliseconds (c) 7-00 milliseconds (a) 655 milliseconds 112. Consider the following set of processes, assumed to have arrived at time 0 in the order P,, Py, ---, Ps, with the length of the CPU burst given in milliseconds : Process Burst time Priority PR 10 3 Py 1 1 Ps B 4 Py 1 5 Ps 5 2 Assuming that low numbers represent high priority, what is the average waiting time under the priority scheduling? (a) 5-66 milliseconds (b) 4:50 milliseconds (c) 8-20 milliseconds (a) 655 milliseconds PNGE-D-ETE/53A 27 113. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding superheaters in steam power plants? (a) In modern utility high-pressure boilers, more than 40% of the total heat absorbed in the generation of steam takes place in the superheaters. (b) In modern utility high-pressure boilers, less than 40% of the total heat absorbed in the generation of steam takes place in the superheaters. (c) In modern utility high-pressure boilers, less than 20% of the total heat absorbed in the generation of steam takes place in the superheaters. (d) In modern utility high-pressure boilers, less than 30% of the total heat absorbed in the generation of steam takes place in the superheaters. 114. What are the advantages of bundle conductors? (a) Reactance is reduced, GMR is increased and voltage gradient is reduced (b) Surge impedance is reduced, GMR is decreased and voltage gradient is increased (c) Reactance is increased, GMR is increased and voltage gradient is reduced (d) Corona loss is reduced, GMR is increased and voltage gradient is increased [ P.T.0. 115. If the loading of the line is less than the surge impedance loading, then which one of the following statements is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) The absorbed reactive power is greater than the generated reactive power and receiving-end voltage is greater than sending-end voltage. The absorbed reactive power is less than the generated reactive power and receiving-end voltage is greater than sending-end voltage. The absorbed reactive power is greater than the generated reactive power and receiving-end voltage is less than sending-end voltage. The absorbed reactive power is less than the generated reactive power and receiving-end voltage is less than sending-end voltage. 116. What are the overall diameter and dia of metal sheath of a single-core cable respectively for working voltage of 80 kV, the dielectric strength of the insulating material being 60 kV/cm? (a) (b) (c) (@) 2-66 cm and 2-66e cm 3-66 cm and 3-66e cm 4-66 cm and 4-66e cm 3-66 cm and 2-66e cm PNGE-D-ETE/53A 28 117. Which one of the following is correct regarding reduction of corona loss? (a) (b) (c) (a) Corona losses can be reduced by using large dia conductors, hollow conductors and bundled conductors Corona losses can be reduced by using small dia conductors, hollow conductors and bundled conductors Corona losses can be reduced by using large dia conductors, hollow conductors and _ single conductors Corona losses can be reduced by using large dia conductors, solid conductors and single conductors 118. Which one of the following types of relay is used to give directional feature to reactance relay? (a) (b) (c) (a) IDMT relay Impedance relay Mho relay Non-directional reactance relay 119. What are the values of _ breaking current and making current of a circuit breaker respectively, rated at 1000 A, 2000/3 MVA, 20 kV, 3 s, oil circuit breaker? (a) 100 kA and 255 kA (b) 200 kA and 255 kA (c) 100 kA and 200 kA (d) 200 kA and 200 kA 120. The nodal admittance formulation, using the nodal voltages as the independent variables, is the most economic (a) in the view of computer time only (b) in the view of computer memory only (c) in the view of both computer time and memory (ad) in the view of stability PNGE-D-ETE/53A 29 121. A 50 Hz, four-pole turbo-generator rated at 30 MVA, 13-2 kV has an inertia constant of H=10 kW-s/kVA. What is the value of kinetic energy stored in the rotor at synchronous speed? (a) 180 megajoules (b) 200 megajoules (c) 300 megajoules (d) 400 megajoules 122. Which of the following is correct regarding the advantages of DC transmission over AC transmission? (a). Power per conductor is more, more corona loss and possibility of higher operating voltages (b) Power per conductor is more, less corona loss and possibility of higher operating voltages (c) Power per conductor is more, no skin effect and possibility of lower operating voltages (a) Power per conductor is more, there is charging current and possibility of higher operating voltages [ P.T.O. 123. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding shunt/series capacitor? (a) Shunt capacitor improves the power factor whereas _ series capacitor improves the stability of transmission line. (b) Series capacitor improves the power factor whereas’ shunt capacitor improves the stability of transmission line. (c) Shunt capacitor improves both the power factor and the stability of transmission line. (da) Series capacitor improves both the power factor and the stability of transmission line. 124. In smart grid, the model load, FACTS devices and control, protection platform as compared to conventional grid are respectively (a) dynamic, specified and adaptive nature (b) dynamic, adaptive and adaptive nature (c) dynamic, adaptive and defined nature (d) static, adaptive and _ adaptive nature PNGE-D-ETE/53A 30 125. A large hydropower station has a head of 324 m and an average flow of 1370 m? /s. The reservoir of water behind the dams and dikes is composed of series of lakes covering an area of 6400 km?. What is the available hydraulic power? (a) (b) (c) (a) 4350 kW 4350 MW 435 MW 435 kW 126. Consider the following statements regarding semiconductor diode : he In the non-conducting region (when the p-n junction is reverse biased), the diode current is exactly zero. The diode requires a small positive voltage to be applied before it enters the conducting region. For large input voltages and/or currents, the diode enters break- down regions in the forward direction. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) (b) (c) (a) 1 and 2 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 127. The mobilities of free electrons and holes in pure silicon are 1300 cm?/V-s and 500 cm?/V-s respectively. What is the value of intrinsic conductivity for silicon? (Assume n; = 1-5x10!° cm for silicon at room temperature) (a) 2-69x10!3 S/cm (b) 4-32x10~ S/cm (c) 4-32x10!5 S/cm (a) 2-69x107© S/cm 128. What happens to the depletion region and the depletion region capacitance of a p-n junction diode with increased reverse-biased voltage? (a) The depletion region shrinks and the depletion region capacitance decreases (b) The depletion region shrinks and the depletion region capacitance increases (c) The depletion region widens and the depletion region capacitance decreases (d) The depletion region widens and the depletion region capacitance increases PNGE-D-ETE/53A 31 129. Consider the following statements regarding voltage-divider bias in a transistor : Ieee rhe voltage-divider bias configuration uses two DC bias sources to provide forward-reverse bias to the transistor. 2. The voltage-divider bias provides a very small base current to the transistor compared to the bias current. 3. Two resistors R, and R, form a voltage divider that provides the base bias voltage to the transistor. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and3 130. In an n-type semiconductor, the Fermi level is 0:3 eV below the conduction level at a room temperature of 300 K. If the temperature is increased to 360 K, what is the new position of the Fermi level? (a) Remains unchanged (b) 0°26 eV above the conduction level (c) 0:36 eV above the conduction level (ad) 0:36 eV below the conduction level [ P.T.O. 131. Consider the following statements 133. Match the following Lists : regarding common-base transistor amplifier : 1. In the active region, the collector- ‎ base junction is forward biased (n-p-n BJT operating (n-p-n BUT while the base-emitter junction is regions) characteristics) reverse biased. 2. In the cutoff region, the collector- P. Cutoff region 1. 16 = 8 £ 75 › base and base-emitter junctions Ip > 0, of a transistor are both reverse Ver > Veg () › biased. Ver > Ver (50) 3. In the saturation region, the collector-base and base-emitter Q. Saturation region 2. 1 = 75 = 75 = 0, junctions are both forward biased. Vee < % (6) › < ) Which of the above statements is/are correct? . Forward active region 3. Ip >0, 1620 (a) 1 and 2 only 10 (b) 2 and 3 only Vee > 8 (on) (c) 2 only (0 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the 132. What are the biasing states of code: given, below. collector-base junction and base-emitter junction in the active region of a common-emitter transistor amplifier? (a) P Q R (a) Both collector-base junction and 1 2 3 base-emitter junction are forward biased (b) Both collector-base junction and ‌ base-emitter junction are reverse 2 3 1 biased (© The collector-base junction is | forward biased and base- 9 1 emitter junction is reverse biased (0) The collector-base junction 15 reverse biased and the 1856- (0 Q R emitter junction is forward biased 2 1 3 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 32 134. Consider the following regarding negative feedback in amplifier circuits : statements 136. In a Wien bridge oscillator, if the value of R is 10kQ and the frequency of oscillation is 10 kHz, what is the value of capacitor C? 1. It has reduction in overall voltage gain. (a) 0-159 pF 2. It has enhanced frequency (b) 15:9 pF response. 3. It has higher output impedance. (Ge eae (da) 1:59 pF Which of the above statements is/are correct? 137. Consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 only regarding frequency stability oscillator : 1. Due to change in temperature, the values of the frequency- determining components, viz., resistor, inductor and capacitor are changed. (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (q) 1,2 and3 2. Frequency can affect due to variation in biasing conditions and loading conditions. 135. In the Hartley oscillator, L, = 0-4 mH and C=0-004 uF. If the frequency of the oscillator is 120 kHz, what is the value of L,? (Neglect the mutual 3. The effective resistance of the tank circuit is unchanged when the load is connected. inductance) Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 4 mH (a) 1 and 2 only pie ca (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 0-4 mH (c) 2 only (d) 40 mH (d) 1, 2 and 3 PNGE-D-ETE/53A 33 EPsB0; 138. A power diode can be used as a switch 140. What are the significant advantages of because its resistance can be controlled with (a) applied current (b) small current (c) higher current (d) applied voltage 139. The reverse current reduces and the voltage across the power diode grows more negative during the turnoff process of the power diode. This time is called MOS power transistor over bipolar power transistor in the pulse power supplies? (a) (b) (c) (a) Very high input resistance and the input currents are of the order of nA Very low input resistance and the input currents are of the order of kA Very high input resistance and the input currents are of the order of kA Very low input resistance and the input currents are of the order of nA 141. In a gate turnoff thyristor, the turning- off is achieved by (a) fall time (b) recovery time (c) reverse recovery time (a) rise time PNGE-D-ETE/53A 34 (a) (b) (c) (a) latching current at gate holding current at gate positive current at gate negative current at gate 142. The function of a capacitive filter in a Graetz diode bridge rectifier is to (a) remove small load current ripples from the rectified output signal (b) minimize voltage variations in AC input signal (c) reduce harmonics in the rectified output signal (ad) introduce more ripples into the rectified output signal 143. The use of an inductive filter in a rectifier circuit provides satisfactory performance only when (a) the load current is high (b) the load voltage is high (c) the load current is low (d) the load voltage is low PNGE-D-ETE/53A 35 144. If a separately excited DC motor is to be operated in the first quadrant only, the converter is used in (a) (b) (c) (a) single-phase half-controlled rectifier single-phase full-controlled rectifier single-phase dual-controlled rectifier four-quadrant chopper 145. The static Scherbius drive can able to provide (a) (b) (c) (a) variable torque control constant torque control braking operation variable speed [ P.T.O. 146. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding series resonant inverter? (a) The load current is a square waveform. (b) The output voltage waveform depends on the damping factor of load impedance. (c) The trigger frequency is higher than the damped resonant frequency. (ad) The voltage waveform depends on the damping factor of load impedance. input 147. If a_ single-phase full-bridge voltage source inverter operates with R load, the nature of output current is (a) square wave (b) sine wave (c) triangular wave (d) pulse wave 148. Which one of the following cores is used for large mains transformers to reduce eddy current loss of high-frequency operation in power electronic circuit? (a) Laminated iron core (b) Laminated steel core (c) Compressed ferromagnetic alloy core (d) Ferromagnetic alloy core PNGE-D-ETE/53A 36 150. Consider the 149. When an induction motor and a heater are supplied from a phase-controlled single-phase AC voltage controllers, then (a) only fundamental component of output voltage and current is useful in the induction motor but fundamental and harmonics are useful in the heater (b) fundamental and harmonics are useful in the induction motor but only fundamental component of output voltage and current is useful in the heater (c) both fundamental and harmonics are useful in the induction motor and heater (d) only harmonics are useful in the induction motor and heater following statements regarding IGBT : 1. It combines into it the advantages of both MOSFET and BJT. 2. It is free from second breakdown problem present in BJT. 3. It has low input impedance and high power loss. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1,2 and 3 PACE FOR ROUGH WORK PNGE-D-ETE/53A 37 0 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PNGE-D-ETE/53A 38 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PNGE-D-ETE/53A 39 68 (2.7.0. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kkk PNGE-D-ETE/53A 40 SB24—15552