QP-CMS 2025 PAPER 02-210725

Combined Medical Services Examination -2025 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : TDSP-T-SGOP Test Booklet Series Serial No. 1060945 MMM RAC av TEST BOOKLET Paper-II (Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, Preventive & Social Medicine) Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 250 10. INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. @ There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer a given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as Nn: ° (ii) Ifa cesuilili gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TDSP-T-SGOP (1-A) 2900182 6009 0910110 20. 0160103 SURGERY 4. Which of the following are the aetiological factors associated with a communicating halus ? 1. Vibration white finger refers to : પાકા () Buerger’s disease i. Post haemorrhagic 0) Raynaud’s syndrome II. Lesions within the ventricle (c) | Acrocyanosis . CSF infection () Takayasu disease IV. Raised CSF protein Select the correct answer using the code given 2. | Which of the following are criteria for cancer below : screening ? (a) 3 Screening test should be sensitive and (2) 1,118 7 specific () 1,111 ‎ [ II. Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population (0) , 111 and IV Ill. The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective IV. Disease should be recognisable at an early stage 5. Which of the following statements are correct Select the correct answer using the code given regarding a brain abscess ? below : ˆ $× Abscesses arise when the brain is (a) I, Mand 111 exposed directly as a result of fracture (0) I, 11 77 or infection of air sinus. ( ` 1 111 7‎ Il. Presenting features include low grade () , 111 74 fever, confusion, seizures and focal deficits. i 8. & 45-year-old lady presents with complaints Ill. MRI with contrast 15 the initial imaging of fatigue, muscle weakness along with modality of choice. i 1 111 16011 which. 76 IV. The aetological agents include bacteria, picked up on a routine ultrasound. Further 3 | fungi, protozoa and viruses. workup revealed serum calcium levels of 11.4 mg%. What is the next best investigation Select the answer using the code given below : required to arrive at a diagnosis ? 67207 (a) MRI neck (2) 1,1 7 ) Sestamibi scan I IV (6) CECT head and neck 00 ‎ () NCCT head and neck (4) , Wand Iv TDSP-T-SGOP (2-A) TDSP-T-SGOP What is the most common type of tumour of Vermiform Appendix ? (a) Epithelial tumour (b) Carcinoid tumour (c) Germ cell tumour (d) Papillary cell tumour The earliest specific cystoscopic appearance of Bilharzial cystitis is : (a) Sandy patches (b) Ulcers (c) Pseudo tubercles (d) Nodules Which one of the following best describes craniosynostosis ? (a) It is delayed fusion of one or more cranial sutures preventing growth perpendicular to the suture. (b) It is the premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures, preventing growth perpendicular to the suture. (c) It is the premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures, facilitating growth perpendicular to the suture. (d) It is delayed fusion of one or more cranial sutures facilitating growth perpendicular to the suture. 10. (3-A) A 60-year-old female presents with pain in her back of recent onset, which has become severe of late. During the course of investigations, she was found to have lytic lesions in the vertebrae and ribs. Which of the following organs should be carefully screened now for detecting the primary cause of these lesions ? (a) Small intestine (b) Large intestine (c) Adrenal (d) Breast Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cauda equine syndrome ? i Its presenting symptoms are perineal numbness, painless urinary retention and fecal incontinence. II. Urgent required. investigation with MRI is Ill. It is present most commonly in the 45-60 year age group. IV. Confirmed cases require early surgical decompression. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) I,Iand III (b) I, ILandIV (c) I, UI andIv (d) II, Wand Iv 11. The commonest site of pressure sore is : (a) Heel (b) Sacrum (c) Ischium (d) Occiput 12. Resection of which part of intestine does not significantly affect fluid and electrolyte balance ? (a) [eum (b) Proximal jejunum (c) Distal jejunum (d) Colon 13. Good measure of systemic perfusion by ABG is by measurement of : (a) Bicarbonate (b) pH (c) Lactate and / or the base deficit (d) PCO, 14. Which of the following are congenital abnormalities of the gall bladder ? I. The phrygian cap II. Floating gall bladder Ill. Absence of gall bladder IV. Spigelian gall bladder Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, Wand II (b) I, IandIV (c) I, UlandIV (d) Il, Il andIV TDSP-T-SGOP 15. 16. 17. (4-8) Which of the following are functions of the gall bladder ? z Reservoir for bile II. Production of bile III. Secretion of mucus IV. Concentration of bile Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, Wand I (b) I, ILandIV (c) I, ULandIV (d) Il, Il and IV Which one of following statements is correct regarding Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS) ? (a) It principally affects young males.” (b) Venous drainage of the liver is occluded by IVC thrombus. (c) Quadrate lobe (Segment 4 and 5) undergoes hypertrophy. (d) Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the main presenting features. Which one of the following is correct ’ regarding splenic artery aneurysm ? (a) Itis twice as common in men. (b) It is usually situated in the main arterial trunk. (c) It is caused due to blunt trauma to the abdomen. (d) Itis generally multiple in number. 18. Which of the following statements are regarding primary survey/management of traumatic head injury patient ? 1. Ensure adequate oxygenation and circulation 11. Exclude hypoglycaemia . Check for mechanism of injury IV. Check pupil size and response Select the answer using the code given below : (8) 1,11 ‎ 111 II, 111 4 7 (6) 1,11 1077 (0) 1,1171 4 77 19. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ABCDE of trauma care ? A stands for Airway with cervical spine protection 11. stands for Breathing and ventilation 111. C stands for Control of massive external haemorrhage IV. D stands for Disability (Neurological status) Select the answer using the code given below : (8) I, Mand 111 (2) 1, 111 4 77 () 811417 (6) 11,111 4 77 20. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Inguinal hernias in children ? ; It is more common in full-term boys. II. It should be repaired promptly. III. It is always indirect. IV. 11 may frequently be transilluminant. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) I, ][ and 7 (2) 11, 11! 74 77 (€) 311 800 77 (0) 111184 IV TDSP-T-SGOP (5- 21. 22. 23. A) The most common site of urethral opening in cases of hypospadias is : (a) Just proximal to the glans (2) On the penile shaft (c) At the junction of penile shaft and stratum (0) On the perineum Which of the following about Minimal Access Surgery are correct ? 1 Decreased intraoperative heat loss 11. Improved visualization . Increased chances of herniation IV. Improved mobility Select the answer using the code given below : (8) 111364111 00) I, andIV (c) II, Il and IV (0) 111477 The maximum safe dose for Lignocaine (without adrenaline) as a local anaesthetic drug is: () 3 mg/kg (b) 5 mg/kg () ` 7 28/12 (0) 9 mg/kg 24, 25. TDSP-T-SGOP Which of the following are the symptoms commonly experienced by patients with lymphoedema ? i. Swelling Il. Burning sensation III. Intolerance to cold IV. Cramps Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,IandIV (b) I, Iand II (c) I, ll andIV (d) I,UWlandIV Which of the following are the malignancies associated with lymphoedema ? 13 Kaposi Sarcoma II. Squamous cell carcinoma Ill. Malignant melanoma IV. Leukaemia Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,IWand III (b) I,IlandIV (c) I, U1LandIV (d) II, 1 and IV 26. 27. 28. (6-A) Which of the following are the techniques commonly used to close the raw area after excision of a pilonidal sinus in order to avoid a midline wound ? ji Limberg procedure II. Y-V plasty Ill. Z-plasty IV. Karydakis procedure Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,Iand III (b) I,IandIV (c) I, TWLandIV (d) I, WlandIV A 45-year-old lady presents with history of a painless lump in the right breast since 1 month. On examination, the lump is hard, 3x4 cm in size in the upper outer quadrant and is not fixed to the skin or the underlying structures. The axilla reveals firm mobile lymph nodes (level I). Rest of systemic examination is normal. The clinical stage of this disease is : (a) cT,N,M, (b) eT,N,M, (c) eT3N,M, (d) cT3NoM, Which one of the following is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of oesophageal motility disorders ? (a) Upper GI endoscopy (b) Barium swallow (c) High resolution manometry (d) Contrast enhanced CT scan (CECT) oesophagus 29. Which of the following are considered aetiological factors for Adenocarcinoma oesophagus ? 3 Barrett’s oesophagus 11. Gastro-oesophageal reflux III. Obesity IV. Alcohol intake Select the correct answer using the code given below : () 1 11 00 111 ` [, 11/417 (6) 1111 77 (0) 11, 111 74 77 30. Consider the following statements regarding Plummer-Vinson syndrome : 1. Findings include cervical oesophageal web, iron deficiency anaemia and dysphagia. 11. It is a rare disease, mainly affecting middle-aged women. 111. There is predisposition to postcricoid, cervical oesophageal cancer. IV. Treatment is usually surgical. Which of the statements given above are correct ? () II, 111 4 77 11! 77 (c) 111 84 77 () 1 11 74 III TDSP-T-SGOP 31. 32. (ASA) Which of the following are correct regarding late dumping ? 1. It usually occurs during the second hour after meal. II. [+ lasts for 30-40 minutes. 111. Major symptoms are tremor, faintness, prostration IV. It is relieved by lying down. Select the answer using the code given below : () 1, 7‎ (b) 11164177 (c) 311134 17 (4) 7, 111876 IV Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Gastric outlet obstruction associated with long standing peptic ulcer disease ? (a) Hypochloraemic alkalosis 15 the usual metabolic abnormality in such cases. (b) Endoscopic biopsy is essential to exclude malignancy. (c) Medical therapy has no role in the treatment of this condition. (d) Operation is frequently required along with a drainage procedure. 33. The commonly used muscle relaxant with quickest onset of action and spontaneous recovery is : (a) Suxamethonium (b) Vecuronium (c) Atracurium (d) Rocuronium 34. The first imaging modality of choice for a 35-year-old lady, presenting to surgical emergency with complaints of colicky pain in right lower quadrant of abdomen and vomiting since last 2 days is : (a) Contrast CT abdomen (b) Non-contrast CT abdomen (c) Ultrasound abdomen (d) Plain X-ray abdomen erect view 35. Mallampati test is used for the assessment of : (a) Tongue size (b) Ability to protrude jaw (c) Breath hold time (d) Airway 36. Consider the following : L Diabetes Il. Hypertension III. Renal failure IV. Jaundice Which of the above are the risk factors for post-operative wound dehiscence ? (a) I,ILand I (b) I,IandIV (ec) I,IandIV (d) I, Wl andIV TDSP-T-SGOP 37. 38. (8-A) If faced with a surgical emergency in a child of 15 years for whom no consent is available for life-saving surgery and no time for seeking authority from someone, the next step should be: (a) Conservative management till lawyer is available (b) Search for relatives or neighbours (c) Consent arrangement through Hospital Social Worker (d) Go ahead with surgery without consent Which of the following information needs to be disclosed in order to establish valid consent for surgical treatment ? iL Condition and reasons why it warrants surgery II. Type of surgery proposed Ill. Unexpected hazards of proposed surgery IV. The surgical experience and expertise of the operating surgeon Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,Iand Il (b) I,ILandIV (c) I,IWLandIV (d) II, I and IV 39. A surgical department of a premier medical 40. Which of the following statements are correct regarding sutures in surgery ? & Barbed sutures have the advantage of eliminating the need for knots. II. Vertical mattress sutures help in eversion of wound edges. III. Aberdeen knot is used for continuous suturing. IV. Silk is preferred for subcuticular suturing. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) I, I and III (b) I,IandIV (c) I, andIV (d) I, I andIV TDSP-T-SGOP (9- college conducted a study on rates of post-operative wound infection. The results of the study were negative for the proposed hypothesis. What should the department do with the results ? (a) Label them as worthless (b) Redo the study with a new hypothesis (c) Report the negative results (d) Redesign the study and increase the sample size 41. 43. A) GYNAECOLOGY & OBSTETRICS Chadwick’s sign describes : (a) the dusky hue of the -vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy (b) ais softening of cervix at week of pregnancy (c) the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4-8 weeks of pregnancy Which of the following treatments are recommended for a pregnant woman suffering from sickle cell disease ? (d) sS, Folic acid 1 mg daily II. Azathioprine III. Penicillin prophylaxis IV. Thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,IWand Il (b) I, IWandIV (c) I,IlandIV (d) II, II and IV Which of the following are contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV) in breech ? :& Pregnancy less than 36 weeks II. Multiple pregnancy Il. IV. Rhesus isoimmunization Previous cesarean delivery Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, U1 andIV (b) II, III and IV (c) I,IandIV (d) I,Iand III Which of the following hematological findings 44, are seen in pregnant women with thalassemia trait ? (a) Raised HbA, and low MCV (b) Low MCHC (c) Lowserum total iron binding capacity (d) Low HbA, and raised MCV 45. The best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) during pregnancy is : (a) Hydroxychloroquine (b) Sulfasalazine (c) Tacrolimus (d) Progestins 46. Which of the following maternal complications can be seen in hyperemesis gravidarum ? Me Wernicke’s encephalopathy Il. Hepatic failure Ill. Hypoprothrombinemia IV. Convulsions Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, Tl, Wl andIV (b) I, IL and IV only (c) I, IL and IV only (d) IL and III only 47. The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is : (a) Benign cystic teratoma (b) Mucinous cystadenoma (c) Endometrioma (d) Adenocarcinoma ovary TDSP-T-SGOP 48. 49. 50. (10-A) Which of the following statements are correct regarding shoulder dystocia ? is It can be predicted during early labour. II. Anencephaly is a risk factor. II. Turtle neck sign is present. IV. Episiotomy should always be given. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) I, Il and II (b) I, IlandIV (c) I, andIV (d) II, II and IV A primigravida at 38 weeks pregnancy was put on oxytocin drip in view of slow labour at the rate of 30 mlU/min by the newly appointed registrar. She complains of confusion and starts throwing fits. What electrolyte imbalance is expected to have happened in this case ? (a) Hypokalemia (b) Hyponatremia (c) | Hypocalcemia (d) Hypernatremia Which of the following factors favour posterior position of the vertex ? IL. Anthropoid pelvis II. Low inclination pelvis III. Attachment of placenta on the anterior wall IV. Primary brachycephaly Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,IandIU (b) I,IandIV (c) I, andIV (d) I, II and IV 51. Which of the following factors are associated with cord prolapse during labour ? is Malpresentations II. Contracted pelvis III. Stabilizing induction IV. Prematurity Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1,1, WlandIV (b) I, IL and IV only (c) I, IL and III only (d) Il and IV only 52. Detection of magnesium toxicity in a patient receiving magnesium sulphate is noticed by which of the following ? is Loss of tendon reflexes II. Increased respiratory rate Ill. Chest pain, heart block IV. Cardiac arrest Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,IU1andIV (b) ILand IV only (c) Land III only (d) II and IV only 53. Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum psychosis ? (a) There is often no family history of psychosis. (b) Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery. (c) Recurrence rate in subsequent pregnancy is 60-70%. (d) Electro convulsive therapy is the first treatment of choice. TDSP-T-SGOP 54. 55. (11-A) Which of the following are correct in the treatment of cracked nipple ? i Correct attachment (Latch on) will provide immediate relief from pain and rapid healing. II. If pain, mother should use breast pump and the infant is fed with the expressed milk. III. Miconazole lotion is applied: over the nipple as well as in the baby’s mouth if there is oral thrush. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) Land II only (b) IL and III only (c) Iand III only (d) I, Wand Il Which of the following are correct regarding puerperal blues ? 1K Its incidence is around 50%. II. There endocrine derangement. is no specific metabolic or III. Treatment is psychological support. reassurance and Select the answer using the code given below : (a) Iand II only (b) IL and III only (c) Iand III only (d) I, IJand III 56. The Matthews Duncan process has been described for : (a) marginal separation of placenta in normal labour (b) central separation of placenta in normal labour (c) controlled contraction in active management of third stage of labour (d) reposition of acute inversion of uterus following vaginal delivery 57. A PILI lady after 4 hours of delivery is suffering from persistent, severe pain in the perineal region, rectal tenesmus, bearing down feeling and retention of urine. The probable diagnosis is : (a) Cervical tear (b) Vulval hematoma (c) Supralevator hematoma (d) Complete perineal tear 58. According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which one of the following is correct about duration of first stage labour ? (a) Duration of latent phase’ of primigravida has not been established (b) Duration of active stage of multigravida should not exceed 6 hours (c) Duration of active stage of primigravida should not exceed 8 hours (d) Duration of active stage of primigravida should not exceed 18 hours TDSP-T-SGOP 59. 60. (12-A) According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which of the following are correct about birthing position ? bis For a woman without epidural analgesia, adoption of birthing position is individual woman’s choice. Il. For a woman without epidural analgesia, upright birthing position may be adopted. III. For a woman with epidural analgesia, lithotomy and supine position only are recommended. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) Land II only (b) IL and III only (c) Tand III only (d) I, IWand Ii Twin pregnancy should have ultrasound at 10-13 weeks to confirm which of the following ? Ty Number of foetus Il. Viability of foetus III. Chorionicity of twins IV. Malformation in either foetus Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, ILand III only (b) Iand III only (c) ILand IV only (d) 1,1, WandIv 61. Which of the following are neonatal complications of maternal diabetes during pregnancy ? gr Hyperbilirubinemia II. Hypercalcemia III. Cardiomyopathy IV. Hypoglycemia Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, and III (b) I, ILandIV (c) I, andIV (d) IU, I andIv 62. Which of the following are the predictive factors for Fetal Growth Restriction (FGR) ? I. Low level of maternal 1° trimester Beta hCG II. Abnormal uterine artery Doppler at 20-24 weeks of pregnancy III. Fetal echogenic bowel on ultrasound IV. Maternal medical disorder Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, I and III (b) I,IandIV (c) I, UI andIV (d) I, Il andIV 63. Which of the following is the primary surveillance tool in the Growth Restricted Fetus ? (a) Uterine artery doppler (b) Umbilical venous pulsation (c) Middle cerebral artery doppler (d) Umbilical artery doppler TDSP-T-SGOP 67. (13-A) Glands of Cloquet are : (a) lymphatic drainage of vulva (b) lymphatic drainage of cervix (c) lymphatic drainage of uterus (d) lubricating glands of vagina Causes of AUB are subdivided by the acronym PALM-COEIN. What are the characteristics of PALM causes ? e Structural lesions II. Diagnosed by ultrasound III. Confirmed by histopathology Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) LIand II only (b) Tand III only (c) I,Iland IT (d) ILand III only Daily suppressive therapy for HSV-1 and HSV-2 is: (a) Valacyclovir 1 g once daily (b) Acyclovir 400 mg once daily (c) Acyclovir 400 mg thrice daily (d) , Valacyclovir 1 g twice daily Which of the following are the primary organisms involved in PID ? I: N. gonorrhoeae II. Chlamydia Ill. Mycoplasma hominis IV. Candida albicans Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,IandIIl (b) I,ILandIV (c) I,TlandIV (d) Il, UI and IV 69. 70. TDSP-T-SGOP What are the characteristics of dermoid cyst ? IL Germ cell ovarian tumour II. Bilateral in 15-20% cases III. Torsion is common IV. Rupture is common Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Land III only (b) IL and IV only (c) II, Wl and IV (d) I, Il and III Which one of the following differential diagnosis of chronic inversion of is not a uterus ? (a) Fibroid polyp (b) Fungating cervical malignancy (c) Cervical prolapse (d) Gartner’s cyst A 28-year-old PL, presents to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge. On examination, the discharge was found to be grayish-white in colour and adherent to vaginal walls. Which one of the following is a bedside diagnostic criterion for the causative organism ? (a) Presence of RBCs in vaginal smear (b) Vaginal pH < 4.5 (c) Positive 10% potassium hydroxide test (d) Positive NAAT test 71. 72. (14-A) Which of the following statements about hysterosalpingography, as an_ operative procedure, are correct ? 1 & Tubal patency assessment following tuboplasty operation II. Diagnosis of uterine synechiae Ill. Detection of IUD IV. Diagnosis of subserosal fibroid Select the answer using the code given below : (a) I,ILand III (b) I,ILandIV (c) I, andIV (d) II, I and IV Which of the following are indications of endometrial sampling ? & Endometrial tuberculosis II. Endometrial polyp III. Postmenopausal bleeding IV. Abnormal uterine bleeding Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, Mand II (b) I, IandIV (c) I,UlandIv (d) II, II and IV 73. A 30-year-old P3L3 female presents in Gynaecology emergency with acute abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of short duration (1 hour). She gives history of tubal ligation after birth of third child. On examination, right adnexal tenderness was found and os was closed. What is the probable diagnosis ? (a) Ectopic pregnancy (b) Pelvic inflammatory disease (c) Appendicitis (d) Complete abortion 74. Which of the following statements are correct regarding audit in Obstetrics and Gynaecology ? 18 It can replace the out of date clinical practices with better ones. 11. 1115 an efficient educational tool. 111. It should be based 01 scientific evidences with facts and figures. IV. 1115 not labour-intensive. Select the answer using the code given below : (8) 1, ]] and 111 111864 77 (c) 111 ‎ () II, 7 TDSP-T-SGOP 75. 76. 77. (15-&) Which of the following are poor prognostic factors in endometrial adenocarcinoma ? 1. Estrogen and progesterone receptor positivity 11. HER-2/neu gene expression III. Histologic types papillary serous or clear cell carcinoma 117. Aneuploid tumours Select the correct answer using the code given below : () 1,11 6 111 (2). ` 111 76 17 () 1,111 6 77 (0) 11, 111 6 77 For which of the following conditions, surgery is indicated in a case of Fibroid Uterus ? 17 Symptomatic and _ failed medical management 11. Size > 12 weeks 111. Pedunculated fibroid Select the correct answer using the code given below : () 1,11 17 (0) 88/06 II only (6) 88 76 111 only () ` [ only Which of the following is measured without any straining while examination under POP-Q system ? (a) 1. ) Ge (1) Point D 78. Which of the following are criteria for opting Le Fort’s operation for surgical correction of pelvic organ prolapse ? 1: Procidentia in old age II. Unfit for long duration surgery 111, Associated uterine pathology IV. function no longer required Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 4 1 (0) 1880 11 only (c) 11, 111 4 77 (0) 111 64 [7 79. Opening of Bartholin’s duct is in the : (a) vestibule outside the hymen at the junction of the anterior 2/30 and posterior 1/3" in the groove between the hymen and labium minus (b) groove between labia majora and labia minora (€) superficial perineal pouch at the junction of anterior 1/376 and post 1/ () periurethral region in anterior 1/3" of labia minora 80. Which of the following are Amsel’s diagnostic criteria ? 1. Vaginal pH > 4.5 II. Positive Whiff test 111, Presence of clue cells > 20% IV. Positive bacterial vaginal culture Select the correct answer using the code given below : () I, 11 and 111 1,71 7 (€) 1, 111 6 () 11, 111 4 TDSP-T-SGOP 81. 82. (16 _ ^ ) PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE Which of the following indicators are considered for computing “Physical Quality of Life Index” (PQLD ? 127 Infant mortality II. 1116 expectancy at age one 111. Literacy IV. Per capita income Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, 11 90 111 (0) 1,171 ‎ (0. 3111 77 (0) , 111 and IV Which one of the following terms is an “all-or-none phenomenon” and 18 best described as termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of the infectious agent ? () Disease control (b) Disease elimination (c) Disease eradication (d) Disease surveillance TDSP-T-SGOP “Objectives are set forth for different units and subunits, each of which prepares its own plan of action, usually on a short-term basis.” The definition best sums up which one among the following terms ? (a) Input-Output analysis (b) Personnel management (c) Management by objectives (d) Work sampling The Panchayati Raj is a three-tier structure of rural local self-government in India with the three levels being village, block and district. _ Consider the following bodies : I Gram Sabha II. Gram Panchayat III. Nyaya Panchayat IV. Panchayat Samiti Which of the above bodies are present at the village level ? (a) Iand II only (b) II and IV only (c) I,Iand III (d) II, Wl andIV 87. (17-A) Many patients with unexplained rash and fever were reported from a village close to the Primary Health Centre (PHC). What is the first step in initiating the investigation of such an epidemic ? (a) (b) (c) Confirm existence of epidemic (d) Rapid search for all cases Verification of diagnosis Defining the population at risk John Snow’s discovery that cholera is a waterborne disease was the outcome of which type of study ? (a) Uncontrolled trial (b) Natural experiment (c) Risk factor trial (d) Trial of aetiological agent Given below is a table showing diagnosis of Myocardial infarction by ECG : Myocardial infarction ECG results Present Absent Positive 45 8,000 Negative 5 32,000 Total 50 40,000 Consider the following statements : 5 Sensitivity is 90%. Il. Specificity is 80%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Ionly (b) ILonly (c) BothIandII (d) Neither I nor II 88. 89. Data obtained from hospital records is not a representative sample of the population. What are the reasons for this ? I. Mild cases and subclinical cases may be missed. II. Population served by a hospital usually cannot be defined. Ill. Cost of hospital care is not recorded. IV. Admission policy for cases can vary from hospital to hospital. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Iand II only (b) I and III only (c) I,IandIV (dq) II, I andIV Of the following ocular manifestations of Vitamin A deficiency, the first sign that can be clinically seen is : (a) Bitot’s spots (b) Nyctalopia (c) Conjunctival Xerosis (d) Corneal Xerosis 90. The bony deformity of ‘pigeon chest’ in children occurs due to deficiency of : (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K TDSP-T-SGOP 91. 92. 93. (18-A) Which one among the following essential amino acids is usually the “limiting” amino acid in most of the pulses ? (a) Lysine (b) Methionine (c) Threonine (d) Valine Which among the following are defence mechanisms adopted when an individual is faced with problems or failures ? iE Rationalization Il. Regression II. Projection IV. Replacement Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, and I (b) 1,IandIV (c) I, andIv (d) U, III and IV What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly ? L They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted. in great numbers in faeces. II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification. III. They survive lesser than the pathogens. IV. They are easily detected by culture methods. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) IandIV (b) ILand III (c) Ionly (d) IVonly 94. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken : i It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 ug folic acid. II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach. Ill. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Tonly (b) ILonly (c) Land III (d) IandII 95. The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027 ? (a) All states and UTs must reduce API to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk. (b) All states and UTs must establish fully functional malaria surveillance to track, investigate and respond to each case. (c) Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria. (d) Entire country has to initiate the process for certification of malaria elimination. TDSP-T-SGOP 97. 98. (19-A) Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are being provided with a minimum package of antenatal care including certain investigations and drugs on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified for this purpose ? (a) 1°" day of the month (b) 78 day of the month (c) 9" day of the month (d) 15" day of the month “Small for Date” (SFD) babies, also known as “small for gestational age” babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age ? (a) 24 percentile (b) 5 percentile (c) 10" percentile (d) 20" percentile In the most widespread calculation of Stillbirth Rate, the numerator is defined as foetal deaths weighing over ‘X’ gram at birth, during the year. Which one of the following is the correct value for ‘X’ ? (a) 500 (b) 750 (c) 1000 (d) 1500 99. While performing triage in response to a disaster emergency, commonly an internationally accepted four-colour code system is used. Which one among the following four-colour categories represents the highest priority for emergency response ? (a) Black (b) Green (c) Red (d) Yellow 100. Consider the following statements with regard to Ice-Lined Refrigerator (ILR) employed for storing vaccines at the sub-district level : i. These types of refrigerators are top-opening. Il. Based on the temperature zone, the inside of ILRs can be divided into 3 parts. Ill. The upper part of ILR is cooler compared to the lower part. IV. Vaccines should never be kept directly on the floor of the ILR as they can get damaged. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) TandII (b) Iand III (c) IlandIV (d) IandIV TDSP-T-SGOP 101. 102. (20-A) Which one of the following is the major contributor to the total energy intake, in terms of energy provided, in an average Indian diet ? (a) Fats (b) (c) (d) Carbohydrates Proteins Vitamins Consider the following with regard to Amino Acids : I Essential Amino Acids are those that the body cannot synthesize and they must be obtained from dietary proteins. Il. Not just the Essential Amino Acids, Non-essential Amino Acids are also needed by the body for synthesis of tissue proteins. III. Unless a protein contains all the Essential Amino Acids corresponding to human needs, a in amounts protein is said to be biologically incomplete. IV. Animal proteins are rated superior to vegetable proteins. Of the above statements, how many are correct ? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four 103. Which of the following strategies were encouraged by the UNICEF under its (0031 Campaign’ ? 1: for growth charts to better monitor child development 11. 0 for oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration 111. ` 9 for better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age IV. I for immunization against measles, diphtheria, polio, pertussis, tetanus and tuberculosis Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1, [ 00 (2) 11186417 (c) 1, [ (4) II, 111 6 777 104. What is the limit of daily exposure of noise that people can tolerate without substantial damage to hearing ? () 8 85 08 (c) 105 08 () 125 TDSP-T-SGOP 105. 106. 107. (21-A) How much illumination is recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society for the general office work ? (8) 100 lux (b) 200 lux () 400 lux (d) 900 lux Dietary fibres have : (a) anabolic effect (2) catabolic effect (€) no metabolic effect (d) sometimes anabolic and sometimes catabolic effect, depending on the type Egg proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because : I. மீண்‌ biological value II. of their digestibility 111. they contain all the essential amino acids IV. their calorie content is higher than in proteins of vegetable sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) [ I, Land III (c) 11,1077 and IV (0) 1,111 andIV 108. 109. 110. On a chest radiograph, which of the following occupational diseases is most likely to be mistaken as a case of tuberculosis of lungs ? (a) Anthracosis (b) Silicosis (c) Siderosis (d) Byssinosis With which variety of asbestos, Mesothelioma has been shown to have a strong association ? (a) Amosite (b) Anthrophyllite (c) Crocidolite (d) Chrysolite Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016, human anatomical waste is to be carried in which colour plastic bags ? (a) Yellow (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Black TDSP-T-SGOP 111. 112. (22-A) As an index of thermal comfort, the ‘Corrected Effective Temperature’ is considered to be an improvement over ‘Effective Temperature’. It deals with which of the following factors ? if Air velocity Il. Humidity III. Mean radiant heat Iv. Sweat rate Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I,UlandIV (b) II, Ill and IV (c) I, II and III (d) Iand II only In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme ? (a) DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age (b) DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age (c) DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age (d) DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age 113. A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever ‘receptive’ area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward ? (a) 6days (b) 7days (c) 8days (d) 10 days 114. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit ? (a) 30 days (b) 61 days (c) 91 days (d) 121 days TDSP-T-SGOP 115. 116. 117. (25k) Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke’s encephalopathy : I. It is caused by niacin deficiency. II. It is often seen in alcoholics. III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features. IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) I,Iand III (b) II, 1 and IV (c) I,ILandIV (d) I,IandIV A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly ? (a) Propagative transmission (b) Mechanical transmission (c) Cyclo-propagative transmission (d) Cyclo-developmental transmission In the case of a 7-year-old school-going child, which would be the most appropriate indicator to measure the current nutritional status ? (a) Birth weight (b) Mid upper arm circumference (c) Head circumference (d) Weight for height TDSP-T-SGOP 118. Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) : E Early, detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of HBNC. II. ANM is the main person involved in the delivery of HBNC. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the key objectives of HBNC. The primary aim of HBNC is to improve newborn survival. Ii. IV. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) Iand II only (b) ILand III only (c) I, I. and IV only (d) I, Il, Wand IV 119. 120. (24-A) Which transmitted as a recessive, sex-linked trait ? of the following conditions are ee Retinitis pigmentosa II. Colour blindness Ill. IV. Cystic fibrosis Duchenne muscular dystrophy Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I, I and Il (b) I,IMandIV (c) Il, Wand IV (d) I,UlandIV Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation provide the STI/RTI services ? (a) Antara Clinic (b) Chhaya Clinic (c) Sathi Clinic (d) Suraksha Clinic SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK TDSP-T-SGOP (25-A) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK TDSP-T-SGOP (26-A) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK TDSP-T-SGOP (27-A) 1060945 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK TDSP-T-SGOP (28-A)