QP CGSPE26 GenStud I 09022026

Combined Geo-Scientist (Preliminary) Examination, 2026 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : BBSP-O-GST Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET PAPER—I ( General Studies ) 1010806 ae Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 a: 2. 5. 6. 10. - You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. . This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. : You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. - Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. . After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. . Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO JNON 1. The voting age in India was changed from 21 years to 18 years under which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts? (a) The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977 (b) The 48th Amendment Act, 1984 (c) The 61st Amendment Act, 1989 (d) The 69th Amendment Act, 1991 2. The Preamble of the Constitution serves which of the following purposes? I. Source of power for the Legislature II. States the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote Ill. Lays out provisions for economic liberty IV. States the source from which the Constitution derives its authority Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and Ill (b) 1 and IV only (c) 1, Wand IV (a) Ul, Wl and Iv BBSP-O-GST/61B 8. Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution of India are correct? I. No part of the Constitution can be changed by an ordinary legislation unless so authorized. II. All parts of the Constitution can be amended including the basic features. Ill. The Fundamental Rights can be amended under Article 368. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) Il and III only (d) 1, and I 4. Local Self-Government, in both rural and urban areas, falls under which of the following? (a) The Union List (b) The Concurrent List (c) The State List (a) Both the Union List and the State List, in which the Centre has the final say 5. The number of Judges in the Supreme Court can be increased by (a) a constitutional amendment (b) the President of India (c) an Act of the Parliament (a) the decision taken by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with other Judges 6. Which one of the following is the first State to universalize the pre-primary education formally? (a) Kerala (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (ad) Karnataka 7. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President? (a) The Chairman of a Public Service Commission (b) The Attorney General of India (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (dq) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India BBSP-O-GST/61B 8. Consider the following States : I, Andhra Pradesh II. Maharashtra lll. Karnataka IV. Telangana How many of the above States have Bicameral Legislature? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (@) All four 9. Which of the following statements with regard to Proclamation of Emergency are correct? I. It cannot be in operation unless approved by the resolution of both the Houses of the Parliament within one month. II. Proclamation is immune from judicial review. III. Proclamation of Emergency may be made by the President of India at any time if the security of the country is threatened. IV. The President of India can issue a Proclamation of Revocation any time if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I and III only (b) Il, Ill and IV (c) I, Ill and IV (ad) I and IV only [ P.T.O. 10. What is the full form of SIR introduced by the Election Commission of India? (a) Special Inclusive Review (b) Selective Intensive Revision (c) Special Intensive Revision (d) Specific Internal Review 11. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India? . I. Article 143 of the Constitution of India lays down that the Supreme Court may be required to express its opinion. Il. The Supreme Court’s advisory opinion is binding on the President under Article 143.0 the Constitution of India. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) Tl only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 12. The Anti-Arrack Movement was initiated in which one of the following States of India? (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh BBSP-O-GST/61B 13. Consider the following pairs : Provisions Borrowed from I. Centrifugal form of : Canada federalism Il. Impeachment of the: USA President III. Concept of the : USSR Concurrent List IV. The Fundamental : Australia Duties How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) (b) (c) (a) One Two Three All four 14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Property under the Constitution of India? i, Il. Right to Property was part of the Fundamental Rights. Right to Property is made a constitutional right under Article 300A. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) (b) (c) (a) I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II 15. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of National Emergency? (a) (b) (c) (d) Articles 20 and 21 Articles 30 and 32 Articles 14 and 15 Articles 18 and 19 16. With reference to tropical thorn forests in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. They are found in regions with less than 50 cm of annual rainfall. Il. They are found in parts of Jharkhand. Ill. Khejri and Khair are important plant species of these forests. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I only (b) 1 and II (c) I and III (d) 1 and I 17. With reference to ‘water vapour in the atmosphere’, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It contributes to the stability and instability in the air. II. It acts like a blanket, allowing the Earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (a) Neither I nor II BBSP-O-GST/61B 18. With reference to ‘conditions favourable for tropical cyclones’, which of the following is/are correct? I. Small variations in the vertical wind speed Il, Upper divergence above the sea level system Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (ad) Neither I nor II 19. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many States of India? (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Eight 20. The Earth in its initial phases of ~ formation was a hot object with a thin layer of atmosphere comprising (a) oxygen and nitrogen (b) hydrogen and helium (c) carbon dioxide and nitrogen (da) argon and methane [ P.7.0. 21. Which one of the following refers to ‘the Big Splat’? (a) Formation of the Moon (b) Formation of the Earth (c) Formation of the Sun (ad) Formation of the Universe 22. The International Date Line is made zigzag to avoid which one of the following island groups? (a) Aleutian Islands (b) Bonin Islands (c) Solomon Islands (ad) Cook Islands 23. Consider the following statements regarding earthquake : I. Tectonic earthquakes originate due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane. II. Volcanic earthquake is a special class of tectonic earthquake. Ill. The intensity of an earthquake is measured by the Richter scale. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and III only (b) 1 and II only (c) II and III only (a) 1, Wand mW BBSP-O-GST/61B 24. Consider the following statements regarding metamorphic rocks : I. They undergo recrystallization and reorganization of the _ original minerals. Il. Foliation and banding are associated with these rocks. III. Gneissoid and syenite are examples of these rocks. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and II only (b) Il and III only (c) 1 and III only (d@) 1, Il and Ill 25. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Weathering results in mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks. Statement-II : Weathering is controlled by geologic and geomorphic processes but is independent of climatic factors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-Il explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is. correct .but Statement-II is not correct (ad) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct 26. Consider the 27. Consider the following statements regarding terrestrial radiation : I. Insolation received by the Earth is in shortwaves. Il. The Earth’s energy heats the atmosphere from below. Ill. The shortwave radiation from the Earth is absorbed by the greenhouse gases. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) 1 and III only (@) 1, Il and Ill following statements regarding South-West monsoons in India : I. The monsoons enter into West Bengal from a South-Westerly direction. Fhe retreating South-West monsoons bring rain to the Eastern part of Peninsular India. Ill. The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the South-West monsoons. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and II only (b) 1 and III only (c) II and III only (a) 1, 1 and I BBSP-O-GST/61B 28. 29. 30. According to the Ramsar Convention, which one of the following lakes is protected as waterfowl habitat? (a) Chilika Lake (b) Pulicat Lake (c) Vembanad Lake (ad) Kolleru Lake Which one of the following government schemes in India promotes organic farming? (a) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (b) PM Kisan Yojana (c) PM Krishi Sinchai Yojana (a) Krishi Bhagya Yojana Consider the following statements regarding salinity of oceans : I. The North Sea records low salinity because of its location in higher latitudes. Il. The Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters. Ill. The Mediterranean Sea _ records higher salinity due to evaporation. IV. The Black Sea has high salinity due to lack of river water influx. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) land II (b) Il and Ill (c) Ill and IV (a) 1 and IV [ P.T.0. 31. Consider the following pairs : 33. A bank generated savings credit of 1,600 crore in the first round from a savings deposit of £2,000 crore. What records for pregnant is the Cash Reserve Ratio fixed by the women and children up Central Bank? to 14 years (a) 5% II. E-Sanjeevani : World’s largest tele- (b) 10% medicine implementation (c) 20% in primary health care I. U-WIN : Digitizing vaccination (da) 25% III. Ayush ‘ i 1 A sige ro “a eee ste 34. In the context of economy, the term Bharat Digital participation of private aay gare Mission hospitals in the scheme Cape SOOe treay ae (a) any asset (b) any durable good that is owned for How many of the pairs given above are ij consumption of households correctly matched? (c) any asset that helps increase the (a) One income of households (b) Two (ad) durable assets which are used to () All th produce goods and services c, ree 35. With reference to distribution of employment in India for the year 2024-2025, consider the following 32. Which of the following is/are considered statements : to be part/parts of broad money measure but not part/parts of narrow money measure? (d) None I. Self-employment is a major source of employment for men in rural areas. I. Currency with the public Il. Casual wage work is a major source Il. Demand deposits with banks of employment for women. Ill. Time deposits with banks Ill. Proportion of women engaged in self-employment in rural areas is q re th i eas. Select the correct answer using the code mere apn, theta grhan en given below. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (a) I only aed (b) 1 and Ill only (c) II and III only (c) Il and III only (d) 1, Il and Ill (@) I, Il and Ill BBSP-O-GST/61B 8 36. Consider the following statements about the SANKALP Scheme : I. It is a programme of the Ministry of = Skill Development and Entrepreneurship with loan assistance from the World Bank. Il. Quality assurance of _ skill development programmes is one of the result areas of this scheme. Ill. Inclusion of the marginalized population is not an objective of this scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) 1 and II (c) II only (a) land Il 37. According to the World Bank Poverty and Equity Brief (October 2025), 46% of India’s poor lived in which of the following States? (a) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra (@) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra BBSP-O-GST/61B 38. Consider the following statements regarding the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) : I. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling poor households to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities. Il. It assures that at least two members from each rural poor household would be brought under the Self-Help Groups (SHGs) network. Ill. The programme leverages community resources to build institutions and promote livelihoods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) I and II (c) II and Ill (a) 1 and III 39. With reference to the Human Development Report (2023-2024), consider the following countries : I. Sri Lanka Il. Myanmar Ill. Nepal How many of the above countries are performing better in terms of human development than India? (a) One (b) Two (c) All three (qd) None [ P.T.O. 40. Consider the following statements about the Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) in India : Statement-I : It is often criticised for being an incomplete criterion for measuring poverty. Statement-II : It does not differentiate between the very poor and the other poor (transient poor). Statement-IIl : It takes expenditure on food and a few select items as proxy for income. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I (b) (c) Only one of Statement-II and Statement-IIl is correct and that explains Statement-I Neither Statement-Il Statement-III is correct (@) nor BBSP-O-GST/61B 10 41. 42. Under the leadership of which Sanskritist/Epigraphist was the project of preparing the first critical edition of the epic Mahabharata started in 1919? (a) Bhau Daji (b) V. S. Sukthankar (c) Rajendralal Mitra (@) R. G. Bhandarkar Which one of the following texts provides a detailed and connected account of Buddha’s life? (a) Lalitavistara (b) Baudhayana Dharmasutra Mahavagga () (da) Therigatha 43. A 150 CE inscription of Shaka ruler Rudradaman and a_ Sth century inscription, at the same place, of the time of Gupta king Skandagupta refer to which one of the following? (a) King Ashoka’s visit to the birth- place of Buddha (b) Construction of an ancient theatre (c) Construction of Rajsamand Lake (d) Construction and reconstruction of Sudarshana Lake 44. Consider the following statements about Ashoka’s Dhamma : I. The theme of Ahimsa is an important aspect of Ashoka’s Dhamma. Il. The ceremony of Dhamma is in proper courtesy to slaves and servants. Ill. Dhamma consisted of the promotion of Buddhism. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and III only (b) II and III only (c) I and II only (d) 1, and BBSP-O-GST/61B 45. Consider the following statements about town planning in the Lower Town of Mohenjo-daro : I, The length of the bricks was about twice the height. Il. High platforms were built on which houses were constructed. Ill. The houses were uniformly rectangular in plan. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, Il and II (b) I and III only (c) 1 and II only (d) II and III only 46. The Bahamani kingdom and Vijayanagara empire clashed frequently over the territory of (a) Madurai (b) Warangal (c) Malabar (da) Raichur Doab 47. Which of the following are the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935? I. Provincial Autonomy Il. Dyarchy at the Centre III. Abolition of the India Council Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) 1 and III only (d) 1, Il and Ill [P.T.O. 48. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in the Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?. (a) The Congress Ministries resigned in seven provinces. (b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians. (c) The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress. (d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over. 49. When did the Dandi March begin and when did it end? (a) 26th January, 1930 and 6th April, 1930 (b) 12th March, 1930 and 6th April, 1930 (c) 26th January, 1930 and 12th April, 1930 (d) 12th March, 1930 and 12th April, 1930 50. Consider the following pairs : Traveller Century/ Centuries I. Marco Polo : Tenth and eleventh centuries Il. Al-Biruni : Thirteenth century Ill. Duarte Barbosa : Sixteenth century How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) All three BBSP-O-GST/61B 12 51 53. . Which of the following white blood cells (WBCs) are found in the highest number in human blood? (a) Basophils (b) Lymphocytes (c) Monocytes (a) Neutrophils 52. Which of the following statements about the process of respiration is/are correct? I. During inspiration, the diaphragm gets relaxed. Il. During expiration, external inter- costal muscles contract. Ill. A healthy human adult breathes 12-16 times per minute at rest. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I only (b) 1 and II (c) II and Ill (d) Il only . Which part of the circulatory system is affected in coronary artery disease? (a) Arteries supplying blood to lungs (b) Arteries supplying blood to kidneys (c) Arteries supplying blood to heart muscles (d) Arteries supplying blood to brain 54. Consider the following statements : 58. Which of the following cells in the human I. Blood of ‘A’ group has anti-B digestive system is responsible for antibodies in plasma. secretion of hydrochloric acid in the II. Blood of ‘AB’ group has both ‘A’ and cd B’ antigens in RBCs. (a) Parietal cell III. Blood of ‘AB’ group cannot be given : to a person having ‘A’ blood group. (b) Peptic cell IV. Blood of ‘0’ group does not possess (c) Goblet cell any antibody in plasma. Which of the statements given above are (@) Jpeous: neck cell correct? (a) 1, Il and Iv 59. Which one of the following is not a part of the fallopian tube of the female (b) 1, Il and Iv reproductive system of humans? (c) 1, Ill and IV a) Ampulla (@) 1, Il and III @ 3 (b) Endometrium 55. Which one of the following is not the function of endoplasmic reticulum? (c) Infundibulum (a) Formation of cell membrane (d) Isthmus (b) Packaging of proteins and lipids (c) Synthesis of lipids 60. Which of the following statements is/are (d) Synthesis of proteins correct for gynoecium of a flower? I. In syncarpous conditions, more . Whi fe i i 56 ich one of the following structures is than one pistil fuse together. not found in case of asexual | reproduction? Il. The stigma serves as a landing (a) Conidium platform for pollen grains. (b) Gamete Ill. Pistils are fused with stamens in all flowers. (c) Gemmule (a) Zoospore Select the answer using the code given 57. Which one of the following structures is = not a part of vegetative propagation? (a) I and II only fa) Rhi e . aang (b) 1 only (b) Bulb (c) Tuber (c) Il and III only (a) Archegonium (@) I, Il and III BBSP-O-GST/61B 13 [Pio 61. What is the molarity of NaOH in the solution prepared by dissolving its 4 g in 250 mL of solution? (The atomic mass of sodium is 23) (a) 0:04 M (b) 0-4 M (c) 4M (d) 40M 62. A solution is prepared by adding 4 g ofa substance to 36 g of water. What is the mass percent of the solute? (a) 144% (b) 10% (c) 9% (d) 1% 63. A tablespoon holds 0-5 mole of water. What is the number of molecules present in it? (a) 6:02 x 1029 (b) 3-01 x 1078 (c) 9 (d) 36 BBSP-O-GST/61B 14 64. Which one of the following characteristics is possessed by enantiomers? (a) They have different melting points. (b) They have different solubilities. (c) They have different optical rotations. (a) They have different refractive indices. 65. Consider the following statements : The polar nature of water makes it I. a very good solvent for ionic compounds II. to act as an amphoteric substance III. to form hydrates of different types Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and II only (b) II and III only (c) 1 and III only (d) I, II and Ill 66. The conversion of naphthalene into naphthalene vapours is called (a) distillation (b) sublimation (c) crystallization (d) decomposition 67. Which of the following methods can be 70. Consider the following compounds : used for removing permanent hardness I Adtivecene of water? Il. Benzene III. Cyclobutane IV. Toluene I. Treatment with washing soda Il. By ion exchange method III. By addition of lime : How many of the above are aromatic Select the correct answer using the code given below. compounds? fa) One (a) land Il (a) Two (b) Il only (b) fc) Three (c) I and Il (c) (ad) 1 onl (da) All four only 71. Which one of the following components is 68. Which of the following are characteristics added to optical glass to cut off UV of aromatic compounds? I. They should be planar. Il. They should follow (4n+2) m-electrons rule. Ill. They should be cyclic. (c) Manganese oxide (ad) Cobalt oxide rays? (a) Copper oxide (b) Cerium oxide Select the correct answer using the code given below. ‘ f ff 72. Consider the following statements in (a) I and II only respect of noble gases : (b) II and III only I. They are p-block elements. II. They are highly active. lll. They have completely filled electronic configurations. (c) I and III only (@) 1, Il and Ill 69. The adsorbent used in chromatographic Which of the statements given above techniques is is/are correct? (a) mica (a) Ill only (b) silica gel (b) I and III only (c) clay (c) I only (ad) glass wool (a) 1, Il and Ill BBSP-O-GST/61B 15 { Pa; 73. Consider the following statements 76. A23a refers to regarding oxidation : I. There is loss of hydrogen. (a) an iceberg Il. There is gain of oxygen. (b) ‘an island Ill. There is gain of electrons. IV. Oxidation state increases. (c) a ship Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, I and I (b) 1, Ill and IV (c) 1, Il and IV I. Bahubali is the name of ISRO’s Launch Vehicle. (d) a ropeway 77. Consider the following statements : (d) Il, Il and IV Il. GSAT-7R is the heaviest communication satellite ever launched from India. 74. The manufacturing of Vanaspati Ghee from polyunsaturated vegetable oils involves which one of the following processes? III. CMS-03 is a multiband (a) Refining of:oil communication satellite of ISRO. (b) Oxidation of oil Hyd ti f oil Which of the statements given above are (c) ydrogenation of oi! eRe (ad) Reduction of oil (a) 1 and II only 75. The cleaning action of soap is characterized by which of the following? (b) Il and III only I. Emulsification Il. Micelle formation around the oil (c) I and Ill only droplet Il Ill. Interaction of hydrophilic part of we ea soap with oil IV. Interaction of hydrophobic part of 78. The 22nd India-ASEAN Summit was held soap with water in October 2025 in Select the correct answer using the code ae ‘ (a) Vientiane given below. (a) Il, Ill and IV only (b) Kuala Lumpur (b) 1 and II only (c) 1, Ill and IV only (d) 1, Il, Ill and IV (d) Bangkok (c) Singapore BBSP-O-GST/61B 16 79. Consider the following pairs : 81. Philadelphi Corridor is located between Leader Country I. Sanae Takaichi : Japan “ (a) Syria and Lebanon II. Catherine Connolly : Ireland Ill. Rodrigo Paz Pereira : Cameroon IV. Paul Biya : Bolivia (b) Syria and Turkey How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (c) Gaza and Egypt (a) One (b) Two (da) Jordan and Israel (c) Three (da) All four 80. Consider the Siig aranies : 82. Which one of the following countries is I. Ethiopia the newest member of NATO? Il. Nigeria Ill. Egypt “al (a) Finland IV. UAE How many of the above are full-time members of BRICS? (b) Sweden (a) One (b) Two (c) North Macedonia (c) Three (ad) All four (d) Montenegro BBSP-O-GST/61B pg [-P.1:0; 83. India’s installed solar capacity in 2025 is close to (a) 70 GW (b) 90 GW (c) 130 GW (a) 200 Gw 84. Dholera and Sanand in Gujarat are in news for setting up (a) solar panels (b) semiconductor units (c) electrical vehicles (a) wind turbines 85. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is an attached office of which Ministry of the Government of India? (a) The Ministry of Commerce and Industry (b) The Ministry of Finance (c) The Ministry of External Affairs (d) The Ministry of Corporate Affairs BBSP-O-GST/61B 18 86. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was first signed during (a) the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment, 1972 (b) the Montreal Protocol, 1987 (c) the Rio Earth Summit, 1992 (d) the Kyoto Protocol, 1997 87. Low temperature and low precipitation produce which type of biome or forests? (a) Tropical forests (b) Thorn scrubs (c) Savanna (a) Tundra 88. A transition zone between two different ecological communities is known as (a) ecocline (b) ecozone (c) ecotone (d) ecotype 89. Two species that possess the same ecological niche cannot coexist indefinitely. This is known as the I. competitive exclusion principle II. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion III. principle of character displacement IV. principle of self-assembly Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 and Il (b) II and Ill (c) Ill and IV (a) 1 only 90. The conversion of nitrogen to ammonium by bacteria and cynobacteria is called (a) nitrification (b) denitrification (c) ammonification (d) None of the above 91. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The leaves of deciduous forest trees produce brilliant colours in autumn. Statement-II : In autumn season, leaves of deciduous forest trees stop producing green chlorophyll pigments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is ;o-correct but Statement-II is not correct (d) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct BBSP-O-GST/61B 92. The measure of area of biologically productive land or sea required to produce food, material and energy for human population is known as (a) Living Planet Index (b) ecological footprint (c) carbon footprint (d) carrying capacity 93. In natural ecosystems, some of the output or output information may be fed back as input to control the functioning. Such system when occurs is called (a) an isolated system (b) a cybernetic system (c) a linear system (d) a successional system 94. Consider the following statements as regards to the protection of ozone layers : I. The Vienna Convention aims to protect the ozone layer. II. The Montreal Protocol is recognized as the most successful inter- national environmental treaty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II [P.T.O. 95. The fundamental niche of a species refers to (a) the actual range of conditions and resources the species occupies in the presence of competitors (b) the physical location within an ecosystem where the species lives (c) the unique role and position of the species in its ecosystem including all the biotic interactions _ (d) the full potential range of physical and biological conditions and resources the species could theoretically occupy 96. Biodiversity elements with actual or potential use should not be lost simply because we presently do not know their value. Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the reason/reasons for the above statement? I. They may have values unused at present but once discovered could enhance the well-being of mankind. Il. They may become useful in future due to changing circumstances. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (ad) Neither I nor II BBSP-O-GST/61B 20 97. Consider the following statements in respect of biodiversity hot spot : I. It is an area unusually rich in biodiversity. II. The flora and fauna are under a constant threat of overexploitation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 98. Consider the following statements : I. Keystone species is an organism that has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. II. Sentinel species gives us an early warning of problems that could potentially affect other species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) Il only (c) Both I and II (ad) Neither I nor II 99. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Trophic relationship within ecological communities tends to be complex and web-like. Statement-II : Many consumers feed on more than one species and are fed upon by more than one species. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and _ Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c} Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct (da) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct 100. Consider the following : I. Methane digester II. Biodiesel Ill. Natural compost How many of the above are examples of clean technologies? (a) One (b) Two (c) All three (d) None BBSP-O-GST/61B 21 101. For satellite communication, why are microwave links at 10-12 GHz preferred? (a) Microwaves at such frequencies cannot penetrate clouds (b) Ionosphere reflects these waves strongly (c) This band lies in low attenuation atmospheric window (d) Microwaves at such frequencies do not require any antenna 102. A rigid body is placed on a horizontal table. When slightly disturbed, its centre of gravity moves horizontally without any rise or fall in its position. Which one of the following correctly describes the state of the body? (a) The body is in stable equilibrium. (b) The body is in unstable equilibrium. (c) The body is in neutral equilibrium. (a) The body’s _ state determined. cannot be 103. A sphere weighs 0-98 N on the Earth. It is brought on the Moon and is divided into 10 equal parts there. Which one among the following is the mass of each part on the Moon in SI unit? (The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth that of on the Earth) (a) 0-01 (b) O1 (c) 0-16 (d) 0-016 [ P.T.O. 104. The diameter of a sphere and the side of a cube are of equal length. Which one of the following is the correct ratio of their mass if both of them are made of the same material? (a) 7/6 (b) 4n/3 () 1 (d) x/3 105. A compass needle made of paramagnetic alloy is used at a location where the angle of dip is 1/3. When the alloy is slightly cooled below the room temperature, the needle’s_ vertical deflection increases, even though the Earth’s magnetic field remains unchanged. Which one of the following best explains this observation? (a) Cooling increases the needle’s moment of inertia making it more sensitive to vertical torque. (b) Paramagnetic susceptibility increases as temperature decreases. (c) The dip angle of the Earth’s magnetic field increases when temperature drops. (d) Cooling decreases thermal agitation, converting the material effectively into a ferromagnet. BBSP-O-GST/61B 22 106. Consider _ the following magnetic materials at room temperature : Gadolinium oxide Bismuth Ruthenium Graphite Aluminium Nickel pooch aii aet doe Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the above magnetic materials? I s There are two diamagnetic materials. Il. There are three paramagnetic materials. Select the answer using the code given below. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (a) Neither I nor II 107. A mercury barometer is placed in an elevator accelerating upwards with a constant acceleration (assume constant temperature and no air leaks). If his the height of mercury column in the stationary elevator and H is the height of mercury column in the moving elevator, then which one of the following is correct? (a) H>h (b) H=h () H<h (a) Nothing can be concluded due to insufficient data 108. A block of wood floats in water with 3/4th of its volume submerged. The same block floats in another fluid with 110. In which of the following cases, the centre of mass of a metallic rod is definitely not at its centre? 2/3rd of its volume submerged. What is the specific gravity of the fluid? I. The density of the metallic rod continuously decreases from left to right. (a) 3/4 Il. The density of the metallic rod continually increases from left to (b) 4/3 right. Ill. The density of the metallic rod (c) 9/8 decreases from left to right up to the centre and then increases. (a) 8/9 IV. The density of the metallic rod increases from left to right up to the centre and then decreases. 109. Typically a Geiger-Miiller tube is used to detect Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) energetic a particles and f particles only (a) 1 and III only (b) B particles and y rays only (b) 1 and II only (c) energetic a particles and y rays only (c) Ill and IV only (ad) energetic a particles, B particles and y rays (d) 1, Il, Ill and IV BBSP-O-GST/61B 23 [P.7:0. 111. For the Newton’s laws to hold true at the 114. Which one among the following is the Earth’s equator, if c is the value of primary reason of microwave heating of correction to the gravitational water? acceleration (g) that should be subtracted from g, then which one of the following is correct? a eal (a) Microwaves ionize water molecules. (a) c=0 (b) 0:01 <c<0-02 (b) Water dipoles undergo rotational resonance at microwave frequencies. (c) 0:02 <c<0-03 (da) c>0-03 (c) Microwaves produce _ standing waves in solids and liquids. 112. Which one of the following materials is strongly paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired f-electrons and is (d) Heating occurs due to induced widely used in MRI contrast agents? currents only. (a) Lead (b) Gadolinium 115. If the electric conductivity of the Earth’s (c) Bismuth outer core is slightly decreased, then which one of the following is the most (a) Platinum immediate effect? 113. In which one of the following regions of electromagnetic spectrum, LASER is most difficult to achieve? (a) Stronger geomagnetic field (a) Microwave (b) Weaker geomagnetic field (b) Infrared (c) Reversal of magnetic field (c) Visible (d) Ultraviolet (d) Disappearance of declination BBSP-O-GST/61B 24 116. Which of the following constants are necessarily included in defining the seven fundamental base units? (a) (b) (c) (a) €,4G, tt e.¢, @ e,c,h N,, k, G 117. The temperature about which a hot solid object emits infrared radiation alone is (a) () (c) (a) up to 100 °C up to 500 °C up to 1500 °C above 1500 °C 118. A spacecraft is placed at a Lagrange point in our solar system where it is far away from the Sun. Which of the following this point could be? (a) (b) () (a) L1 only L2 only Either L1 or L2 Either L4 or LS BBSP-O-GST/61B 119. Which of the following fields could bring a_ deflection in an electron beam? (a) (b) (¢) (a) Electric field only Magnetic field only Either electric field or magnetic field or both Neither electric field nor magnetic field 120. Why is sunscreen lotion used while moving out during daytime in summer? (a) (b) (c) (d) 25 To reduce the exposure to all harmful radiations present in sunlight To reduce the exposure to harmful infrared radiations present in sunlight To reduce the exposure to harmful ultraviolet radiations present in sunlight To reflect the visible radiations by the body surface to glow [ P.T.O. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BBSP-O-GST/61B 26 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BBSP-O-GST/61B 27 PPIRGS SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kkk BBSP-O-GST/61B 28 26BS—12288