Common Proficiency Test Model Paper 1

MODEL TEST PAPERS Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I Board of Studies The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India A © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form, or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise, without prior permission, in writing, from the publisher. Price : Rs. 250.00 Revised Edition : July 2010 Website : www.icai.org E-mail : bosnoida@icai.org ISBN No. : 978-81-8441-039-6 Published by The Publication Department on behalf of The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, ICAI Bhawan, Post Box No. 7100, Indraprastha Marg, New Delhi - 110 002, India. Designed & Printed at Repro India Limited, 50/2, TTC MIDC Industrial Area, Mahape, Navi Mumbai - 400 710, India. July / 2010 / 40,000 Copies (Revised) B © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India A WORD ABOUT MODEL TEST PAPERS (cid:2) (cid:2) Common Proficiency Test (CPT) is an entry level test for Chartered Accountancy Course. It is an objective type test of 200 marks of four subjects, i.e. Fundamentals of Accounting, Mercantile Laws, General Economics and Quantitative Aptitude with an objective to test the basic knowledge in these subject areas. The Board of Studies has prepared comprehensive study materials on these subjects containing lots of objective type questions which will help the students in appearing for the Common Proficiency Test. In addition, Model Test Papers are being published to strengthen the existing question bank given in the Study Material. Model Test Papers will also serve as a useful and handy reference guide to students while preparing for Common Proficiency Test (CPT). Further, it will enhance your understanding about the pattern of questions set and the manner of answering such questions within the given time frames. The Model Test Papers have been divided in two volumes, namely Volume I containing 20 Model Test papers comprising of 4,000 objective type questions and Volume II containing 10 Model Test papers comprising of 2,000 objective type questions. These test papers will help the students to test their level of preparation in each subject. Each Model Test Paper has been divided into four sections. Section A relates to Fundamentals of Accounting carrying 60 marks and Section B Mercantile Laws carrying 40 marks. Section C and D relate to General Economies and Quantitative Aptitude carrying 50 Marks each. All Model Test Papers have been carefully designed so as to expose to students of all types of questions such as one line statement questions and fill in the blank questions, numerical based and table based questions, paragraph based and diagram based questions. The students are advised to answer each test paper under examination conditions. We are confident that these Model Test papers will enable you to enhance your speed and guide you to improve your performance in the examinations. Happy Reading and Best Wishes ! C © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India T I C A I he nstitute of hartered ccountants of ndia COMMON PROFICIENCY TEST Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT/VOLUME - 1 CONTENTS S. No. Test Paper Denomination Page No. 1. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-1.......................................................................1 – 28 2. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-2.....................................................................29 – 56 3. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-3.....................................................................57 – 84 4. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-4...................................................................85 – 114 5. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-5.................................................................115 – 144 6. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-6.................................................................145 – 172 7. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-7.................................................................173 – 202 8. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-8.................................................................203 – 232 9. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-9.................................................................233 – 262 10. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-10...............................................................263 – 292 E © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India CONTENTS S. No. Test Paper Denomination Page No. 11. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-11...........................................................293 – 318 12. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-12..............................................................319 – 344 13. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-13..............................................................345 – 370 14. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-14..............................................................371 – 396 15. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-15..............................................................397 – 424 16. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-16............................................................. 425 – 452 17. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-17..............................................................453 – 478 18. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-18..............................................................479 – 504 19. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-19..............................................................505 – 532 20. Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT-20..............................................................533 – 562 21. Answers for Model Test Papers 1 to 20....................................................563 – 602 (cid:2) F © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India BOARD OF STUDIES THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA COMMON PROFICIENCY TEST Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT – 1 Time : 4 hours Maximum Marks : 200 The test is divided into four sections. Every correct answer carries + 1 mark each and – 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. SECTION – A : FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING (60 MARKS) 1. RPC Ltd. follows the written down value method of depreciating machinery year after year by applying the principle of (a) Comparability. (b) Convenience. (c) Consistency. (d) All of the above. 2. A change in accounting policy is justified (a) To comply with accounting standards (b) To ensure more appropriate presentation of the financial statement of the enterprise. (c) To comply with the law. (d) All of the above. 3. Purchases book records: (a) All cash purchases (b) All credit purchases (c) Credit purchases of goods in trade. (d) None of the above 4. A Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared to know the causes for the difference between: (a) The balances as per cash column of Cash Book and the Pass Book (b) The balance as per bank column of Cash Book and the Pass Book (c) The balance as per bank column of Cash Book and balances as per cash column of Cash Book (d) None of the above Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 1 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 5. While finalizing the current year’s profit, the company realized that there was an error in the valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year, closing stock was valued more by Rs.50,000. As a result (a) Previous year’s profit is overstated and current year’s profit is also overstated (b) Previous year’s profit is understated and current year’s profit is overstated (c) Previous year’s profit is understated and current year’s profit is also understated (d) Previous year’s profit is overstated and current year’s profit is understated 6. In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared (a) In the ratio of capitals (b) Equally (c) In the ratio of loans given by them to the partnership firm (d) None of the above 7. Fundamental accounting assumption is (a) Materiality (b) Business entity (c) Going concern (d) Dual aspect 8. Which of the following errors are not revealed by the Trial Balance: (a) Compensating errors (b) Errors of commission (c) Wrong balancing of an account (d) Wrong totalling of an account 9. Which of the following are of capital nature? (a) Purchase of goods (b) Cost of repairs (c) Wages paid for installation of machinery (d) Rent of a factory 10. Which of the following statement is not true: (a) If del-credere’s commission is allowed, bad debt will not be recorded in the books of consignor (b) If del-credere’s commission is allowed, bad debt will be debited in consignment account (c) Del-credere’s commission is allowed by consignor to consignee (d) Del-credere’s commission is generally given to promote credit sales 11. Discount on issue of debentures is a __________ (a) Revenue loss to be charged in the year of issue (b) Capital loss to be written off from capital reserve (c) Capital loss to be written off over the tenure of the debentures (d) Capital loss to be shown as goodwill 2 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 12. Loss on issue of debentures is treated as ____________ (a) Intangible asset (b) Current asset (c) Current liability (d) Miscellaneous expenditure 13. Dividends are usually paid as a percentage of ______ (a) Authorized share capital (b) Net profit (c) Paid-up capital (d) Called-up capital 14. At the time of death of a partner, firm gets ________ from the insurance company against the Joint Life Policy taken jointly for all the partners (a) Policy Amount (b) Surrender Value (c) Policy amount or surrender value which ever is higher (d) Policy amount or surrender value which ever is lower 15. Profit or loss on revaluation is shared among the partners in _______ ratio. (a) Old Profit Sharing (b) New Profit Sharing (c) Capital (d) Equal 16. Interest on capital will be paid to the partners if provided for in the agreement but only from________ (a) Profits of the year (b) Reserves (c) Accumulated Profits (d) Goodwill 17. The owner of the consignment stock is________ (a) Consignor (b) Consignee (c) Debtors (d) None 18. The parties to joint venture is called_________ (a) Co-venturers (b) Partners (c) Principal & Agent (d) Friends 19. The accommodation bill is drawn_______ (a) To finance actual purchase or sale of goods (b) To facilitate trade transmission (c) When both parties are in need of funds (d) None of the above 20. The number of production or similar units expected to be obtained from the use of an asset by an enterprise is called as _________ (a) Unit life (b) Useful life (c) Production life (d) Expected life Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 3 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 21. Mr. A purchased a machinery costing Rs. 1,00,000 on 1st October, 2009. Transportation and installation charges were incurred amounting Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively. Dismantling charges of the old machine in place of which new machine was purchased amounted Rs. 10,000. Market value of the machine was estimated at Rs. 1,20,000 on 31st March 2010. While finalising the annual accounts, A values the machinery at Rs. 1,20,000 in his books. Which of the following concepts was violated by A? (a) Cost concept (b) Matching concept (c) Realisation concept (d) Periodicity concept. 22. M/s ABC Brothers, which was registered in the year 2000, has been following Straight Line Method (SLM) of depreciation. In the current year it changed its method from Straight Line to Written Down Value (WDV) Method, since such change would result in the additional depreciation of Rs. 200 lakhs as a result of which the firm would qualify to be declared as a sick industrial unit. The auditor raised objection to this change in the method of depreciation. The objection of the auditor is justified because (a) Change in the method of depreciation should be done only with the consent of the auditor (b) Depreciation method can be changed only from WDV to SLM and not vice versa (c) Change in the method of depreciation should be done only if it is required by some statute or change would result in more appropriate presentation of financial statement or for compliance with the accounting standard (d) Method of depreciation cannot be changed under any circumstances 23. If cost of goods sold is Rs.80,700, Opening stock Rs.5,800 and Closing stock Rs.6,000. Then the amount of purchase will be (a) Rs.80,500 (b) Rs.74,900 (c) Rs.74,700 (d) Rs.80,900 24. Original cost = Rs. 1,26,000. Salvage value = 6,000. Useful Life = 6 years. Annual depreciation under SLM will be (a) Rs.21,000 (b) Rs.20,000 (c) Rs.15,000 (d) Rs.14,000 25. A new firm commenced business on 1st January, 2009 and purchased goods costing Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on freight inwards. At the end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs.12,000. Sales during the year Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by the firm? (a) Rs. 36,000 (b) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 42,000 (d) Rs. 38,000 26. X of Kolkata sends out goods costing Rs. 3,00,000 to Y of Mumbai at cost + 25%. Consignor’s expenses Rs. 5,000. 1/10th of the goods were lost in transit. Insurance claim received Rs. 3,000. The net loss on account of abnormal loss is (a) Rs.27,500 (b) Rs.25,500 (c) Rs.30,500 (d) Rs.27,000 4 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 27. A and V enter into a joint venture to sell a consignment of biscuits sharing profits and losses equally. A provided biscuits from stock Rs. 10,000. He paid expenses amounting to Rs. 1,000. V incurred further expenses on carriage Rs. 1,000. He receive cash for sales Rs. 15,000. He also took over goods to the value of Rs. 2,000. The profit on joint venture will be (a) Rs.3,000 (b) Rs.5,000 (c) Rs.6,000 (d) Rs.3,500 28. X draws a bill on Y for Rs. 20,000 for 3 months on 1.1.10. The bill is discounted with banker at a charge of Rs. 100. At maturity the bill return dishonoured. In the books of X, for dishonour, the bank account will be credited by (a) Rs. 19,900 (b) Rs. 20,000 (c) Rs. 20,100 (d) Rs. 19,800 29. A sent some goods costing Rs.3,500 at a profit of 25% on sale to B on sale or return basis. B returned goods costing Rs.800. At the end of the accounting period i.e. on 31st December, 2009, the remaining goods were neither returned nor were approved by him. The stock on approval will be shown in the balance sheet at (a) Rs. 2,000 (b) Rs. 2,700 (c) Rs. 2,700 less 25% of 2,700 (d) Rs. 3,500 30. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2 having the capital of Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively. They are entitled to 9% p.a. interest on capital before distributing the profits. During the year firm earned Rs. 7,800 after allowing interest on capital. Profits apportioned among A and B is (a) Rs. 4,680 and Rs. 3,120 (b) Rs. 4,800 and Rs. 3,000 (c) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,800 (d) None of the above 31. A & B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. On admission, C brings Rs. 70,000 cash and Rs. 48,000 against goodwill. New profit sharing ratio between A, B and C are 7:5:4. The sacrificing ratio among A:B will be (a) 3:1 (b) 4:7 (c) 5:4 (d) 2:1 32. The cash book showed an overdraft of Rs.1,500, but the pass book made up to the same date showed that cheques of Rs.100,Rs. 50 and Rs.125 respectively had not been presented for payments; and the cheque of Rs.400 paid into account had not been cleared. The balance as per the pass book will be (a) Rs. 1,100 (b) Rs. 2,175 (c) Rs. 1,625 (d) Rs. 1,375 33. A second hand car is purchased for Rs.10,000, the amount of Rs. 1,000 is spent on its repairs, Rs. 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1,200 is paid as dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 10,500 (c) Rs. 11,500 (d) Rs. 12,700 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 5 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 34. If a purchase return of Rs.84 has been wrongly posted to the debit of the sales return account, but had been correctly entered in the suppliers account, the total of the trial balance would show (a) the credit side to be Rs.84 more than debit side (b) the debit side to be Rs.84 more than credit side (c) the credit side to be Rs.168 more than debit side (d) the debit side to be Rs.168 more than credit side 35. The Accountant of the firm M/s ABC is unable to tally the following trial balance. S. No. Account heads Debit (Rs.) Credit (Rs.) 1. Sales 15,000 2. Purchases 10,000 3. Miscellaneous expenses 2,500 4. Salaries 2,500 Total 12,500 17,500 The above difference in trial balance is due to (a) wrong placing of sales account (b) wrong placing of salaries account (c) wrong placing of miscellaneous expenses account (d) wrong placing of all accounts 36. R, J and D are the partners sharing profits in the ratio 7:5:4. D died on 30th June 2009. It was decided to value the goodwill on the basis of three year’s purchase of last five years average profits. If the profits are Rs. 29,600; Rs. 28,700; Rs. 28,900; Rs. 24,000 and Rs. 26,800. D’s share of goodwill will be (a) Rs. 20,700 (b) Rs. 27,600 (c) Rs. 82,800 (d) Rs. 27,000 37. A company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Mr. John for non-payment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The called-up value per share was Rs.9. On forfeiture, the amount debited to share capital will be (a) Rs.10,000 (b) Rs.8,000 (c) Rs.2,000 (d) Rs.18,000 38. S Ltd. issued 2,000, 10% Preference shares of Rs.100 each at par, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 1,500 Equity Shares of Rs.100 each at a premium of 20% per share. At the time of redemption of Preference Shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account will be (a) Rs.50,000 (b) Rs.40,000 (c) Rs.2,00,000 (d) Rs.2,20,000 6 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 39. W Ltd. issued 20,000, 8% debentures of Rs.10 each at par, which are redeemable after 5 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debentures to be written off every year will be (a) Rs.40,000 (b) Rs.10,000 (c) Rs.20,000 (d) Rs.8,000 40. X sent out certain goods to Y of Delhi. 1/10 of the goods were lost in transit. Invoice value of goods lost Rs 12,500. Invoice value of goods sent out on consignment will be: (a) Rs.120,000 (b) Rs.125,000 (c) Rs.140,000 (d) Rs.100,000 41. T Ltd. purchased land and building from U Ltd. for a book value of Rs.2,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 12% Debentures of Rs.100 each at a discount of 20%. The debentures account will be credited with (a) Rs.2,60,000 (b) Rs.2,50,000 (c) Rs.2,40,000 (d) Rs.1,60,000 42. B Ltd. issued shares of Rs.10 each at a discount of 10%. Mr. C purchased 30 shares and paid Rs.2 on application but did not pay the allotment money of Rs.3. If the company forfeited his entire shares, the forfeiture account will be credited by (a) Rs.90 (b) Rs.81 (c) Rs.60 (d) Rs.54 43. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 9:4:3. The firm took separate life policy of Rs. 25,000 for A, Rs. 20,000 for B and Rs. 51,000 for C. What is the share of C in the policy amount? (a) Rs. 18,000 (b) Rs. 25,000 (c) Rs. 51,000 (d) Rs. 20,000 44. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2 (A’s Capital is Rs.30,000 and B’s Capital is Rs.15,000). They admitted C and agreed to give 1/5th share of profits to him. How much C should bring in towards his capital? (a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 12,000 (c) Rs. 14,500 (d) Rs. 11,250 45. A and B are partners with the capital Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 40,000 respectively. They share profits and losses equally. C is admitted on bringing Rs. 50,000 as capital only and nothing was brought against goodwill. Goodwill valued as Rs. 35,000 which was adjusted through the Capital accounts of the partners. What will be value of goodwill in the books after the admission of C? (a) Rs. 55,000 (b) NIL (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 15,000 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 7 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 46. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm. At the time of division of profit for the year there was dispute between the partners. Profits before interest on partner’s loan was Rs. 6,000 and Y determined interest @ 24% p.a. on his loan of Rs. 80,000. There was no agreement on this point. Calculate the amount payable to X, Y and Z respectively. (a) Rs. 2,000 to each partner (b) Loss of Rs. 4,400 for X and Z & Y will take home Rs. 14,800 (c) Rs. 400 for X, Rs. 5,200 for Y and Rs. 400 for Z (d) Rs. 2,400 to each partner 47. A merchant sends out his goods casually to his dealers on approval basis. All such transactions are, however, recorded as actual sales and are passed through the sales book. On 31-12- 2009, it was found that 100 articles at a sale price of 200 each sent on approval basis were recorded as actual sales at that price. The sale price was made at cost plus 25%. The amount of stock on approval will be amounting (a) Rs.16,000 (b) Rs. 20,000 (c) Rs.15,000 (d) None of the above 48. A draws a bill on B for Rs 30,000. A wants to endorse it to C in settlement of Rs 35,000 at 2% discount with the help of B’s acceptance and balance in cash. How much cash A will pay to B? (a) Rs.4,300 (b) Rs.4,000 (c) Rs.4,100 (d) Rs.5,000 49. A and B enter into a joint venture for purchase and sale of Type-writer. A purchased Typewriter costing Rs. 1,00,000. Repairing expenses Rs. 10,000, printing expenses Rs. 10,000. B sold it at 20% margin on selling price. The sales value will be: (a) Rs. 1,25,000 (b) Rs. 1,50,000 (c) Rs. 1,00,000 (d) Rs. 1,40,000 50. P of Faridabad sent out goods costing Rs. 45,000 to Y of Delhi at cost + 331/3 %. 1/10th of goods were lost in transit. 2/3rd of the goods received are sold at 20% above invoice price. The amount of sale value will be: (a) Rs.54,000 (b) Rs.43,200 (c) Rs.60,000 (d) Rs.36,000 51. Rent paid on 1st October, 2008 for the year to 30th September, 2009 was Rs. 1,200 and rent paid on 1st October, 2009 for the year to 30th September, 2010 was Rs. 1,600. Rent payable, as shown in the profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December 2009, would be: (a) Rs. 1,200 (b) Rs. 1,600 (c) Rs. 1,300 (d) Rs. 1,500 8 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 52. H Ltd. purchased a machinery on April 01, 2005 for Rs.3,00,000. It is estimated that the machinery will have a useful life of 5 years after which it will have no salvage value. If the company follows sum-of-the-years’-digits method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation charged during the year 2009-2010 was (a) Rs.1,00,000 (b) Rs.80,000 (c) Rs.60,000 (d) Rs.20,000 53. If Average Stock = Rs. 12,000. Closing stock is Rs. 3,000 more than opening stock then the value of closing stock will be (a) Rs. 12,000 (b) Rs. 24,000 (c) Rs. 10,500 (d) Rs. 13,500 54. O Ltd. maintains the inventory records under perpetual system of inventory. Consider the following data pertaining to inventory of O Ltd. held for the month of March 2010: Date Particulars Quantity Cost Per unit (Rs.) Mar. 1 Opening Inventory 15 400 Mar. 4 Purchases 20 450 Mar. 6 Purchases 10 460 If the company sold 32 units on March 24, 2010, closing inventory under FIFO method is (a) Rs.5,200 (b) Rs.5,681 (c) Rs.5,800 (d) Rs.5,950. 55. Debit balance as per Cash Book of ABC Enterprises as on 31.3.2006 is Rs. 1,500. Cheques deposited but not cleared amounts to Rs.100 and Cheques issued but not presented of Rs. 150. The bank allowed interest amounting Rs.50 and collected dividend Rs. 50 on behalf of ABC Enterprises. Balance as per pass book should be (a) Rs. 1,600 (b) Rs. 1,450 (c) Rs. 1,850 (d) Rs. 1,650 56. If a purchase return of Rs.1,000 has been wrongly posted to the debit of the sales returns account, but has been correctly entered in the suppliers’ account, the total of the (a) trial balance would show the debit side to be Rs.1,000 more than the credit (b) trial balance would show the credit side to be Rs.1,000 more than the debit (c) the debit side of the trial balance will be Rs.2,000 more than the credit side (d) the credit side of the trial balance will be Rs.2,000 more than the debit side 57. If repair cost is Rs.25,000, whitewash expenses are Rs. 5,000, cost of extension of building is Rs.2,50,000 and cost of improvement in electrical wiring system is Rs. 19,000; the amount to be expensed is (a) Rs. 2,99,000 (b) Rs. 44,000 (c) Rs. 30,000 (d) Rs. 49,000 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 9 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 58. Sunset Tours has Rs. 3,500 account receivable from Mohan. On January 20, the later makes a partial payment of Rs. 2,100 to Sunset Tours. The journal entry made on January 20 by Sunset Tours to record this transaction includes: (a) A credit to the cash received account of Rs.2,100 (b) A credit to the Accounts receivable account of Rs.2,100 (c) A debit to the cash account of Rs.1,400 (d) A debit to the Accounts receivable account of Rs.1,400 59. A company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Mr. John for non-payment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The called-up value per share was Rs.9. On forfeiture, the amount debited to share capital will be (a) Rs.10,000 (b) Rs.8,000 (c) Rs.2,000 (d) Rs.18,000 60. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill was valued as Rs. 30,000. Contribution of A and C to compensate B will be (a) Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively (b) Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively (c) They will not contribute any thing (d) Information is insufficient for any comment SECTION – B : MERCANTILE LAWS (40 MARKS) 61. Which of the following is false? An offer to be valid must: (a) Intend to create legal relations (b) Have certain & unambiguous terms (c) Contain a term the non-compliance of which would amount to acceptance (d) Be communicated to the person to whom it is made 62. Which of the following statement is true? (a) Consideration must result in a benefit to both parties (b) Past consideration is no consideration in India (c) Consideration must be adequate (d) Consideration must be something, which a promisor is not already bound to do 63. Which of the following is not an exception to the rule – No Consideration, No Contract? (a) Compensation for involuntary services (b) Love & Affection (c) Contract of Agency (d) Gift 10 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 64. A minor’s liability for ‘necessaries’ supplied to him; (a) Arises after he attains majority age (b) Is against only minor’s property (c) Does not arise at all (d) Arises if minor gives a promise for it 65. An agreement is void if it is opposed to public policy. Which of the following is not covered by heads of public policy? (a) Trading with an enemy (b) Trafficking in public offices (c) Marriage brokerage contracts (d) Contracts to do impossible acts 66. Which of the following persons can perform the contract? (a) Promisor alone (b) Legal representatives of promisor (c) Agent of the promisor (d) All of these 67. A, B and C jointly promised to pay Rs. 60,000 to D. Before performance of the contract, C dies. Here, the contract (a) becomes void on C’s death (b) should be performed by A and B along with C’s legal representatives (c) should be performed by A and B alone (d) should be renewed between A, B and D 68. Generally, which of the following damages are not recoverable? (a) Ordinary damages (b) Special damages (c) Remote damages (d) Nominal damages 69. A mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as: (a) mistake of fact (b) mistake of Indian law (c) fraud (d) misrepresentation 70. The term “goods” under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 does not include (a) goodwill (b) actionable claims (c) stocks and shares (d) harvested crops 71. Which of the following is not an implied condition in a contract of sale? (a) Condition as to title (b) Condition as to description (c) Condition as to free from encumbrance (d) Condition as to sample Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 11 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 72. Which of the following is not a form of delivery? (a) Constructive delivery (b) Structured delivery (c) Actual delivery (d) Symbolic delivery 73. Mercantile Agent is having an authority to (a) sell or consign goods (b) raise money on the security of goods (c) sell or buy goods (d) any of the above 74. Doctrine of Caveat Emptor means (a) let the seller beware (b) let the buyer beware (c) let the creditor beware (d) none of the above 75. The most important element in partnership is: (a) Business (b) Sharing of Profits (c) Agreement (d) Business to be carried on by all or any of them acting for all. 76. In the absence of agreement to the contrary all partners are: (a) Not entitled to share profits (b) Entitled to share in capital ratio (c) Entitled to share in proportion to their ages (d) Entitled to share profits equally 77. Active partner is one who: (a) Takes part in the business of the firm (b) Actively participates in co-curricular activities (c) Actively shares the profits (d) Makes a show of authority 78. On dissolution the partners remain liable to till (a) Accounts are settled (b) Partners dues are paid off (c) Public notice is given (d) The registrar strikes off the name 79. Which of the following statements, about the registration of firm, is not true: (a) It must be done at the time of its formation (b) It may be done at the time of formation (c) It may be done before filing a suit against third party (d) It may be done at any time after its formation 12 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 80. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereon but not at the option of the other or others is a ____________ (a) Valid Contract (b) Void Contract (c) Voidable Contract (d) Illegal Contract 81. When the consent of a party is not free, the contract is _____________ (a) Void (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Illegal 82. Ordinarily, a minor’s agreement is ____________ (a) Void ab initio (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Unlawful 83. The threat to commit suicide amounts to ___________ (a) Coercion (b) Undue Influence (c) Misrepresentation (d) Fraud 84. An agreement the object or consideration of which is unlawful, is _____________ (a) Void (b) Valid (c) Voidable (d) Contingent 85. A contingent contract is ____________ (a) Void (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Illegal 86. A agrees to sell his car worth Rs. 100,000 to B for Rs. 20,000 only, and A’s consent was obtained by coercion. Here, the agreement is __________ (a) void (b) valid (c) voidable (d) unlawful 87. A agrees to pay Rs. 5 lakhs to B if he (B) procures an employment for A in Income Tax Department. This agreement is _________ (a) void (b) valid (c) voidable (d) contingent 88. Agreement-the meaning of which is uncertain is ________ (a) Valid (b) Void (c) Voidable (d) Illegal 89. A contract for the sale of “future goods” is __________ (a) sale (b) agreement to sell. (c) void (d) hire-purchase contract Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 13 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 90. A stipulation which is collateral to the main purpose of the contract, and if proves false, gives the buyer only a right to claim damages, is known as __________ (a) conditions (b) guarantee (c) warranty (d) none of these 91. Goods which are in existence at the time of the Contract of Sale is known as _________ (a) present Goods (b) existing Goods (c) specific Goods (d) none of the above 92. Selection of goods with the intention of using them in performance of the contract and with the mutual consent of the seller and the buyer is known as __________ (a) distribution (b) appropriation (c) amortization (d) storage 93. An auction sale is complete on the __________ (a) delivery of goods (b) payment of price (c) fall of hammer (d) none of the above 94. If A agrees to deliver 100 kg of sugar to B in exchange of 15 mts of cloth, then it is __________ (a) Contract of sale (b) Agreement to sell (b) Sale on Approval (c) Barter 95. A partner can retire on_____________ (a) Reaching the age of superannuation (b) On the balance in the capital account reaching a certain amount (c) In accordance with the Partnership Deed (d) On the condition of his nominee becoming a partner 96. Death of partner has the effect of____________ (a) Dissolving the firm (b) Result in continuance of the business of the firm (c) His heirs joining the firm (d) Computation of profits upto the date of death 97. Registration of a firm is____________ (a) Compulsory (b) Optional (c) Occasional (d) None of the above 98. The reconstitution of the firm takes place in case of __________ (a) Admission of a partner (b) Retirement of a partner (c) Expulsion or death of a partner (d) All of the above 14 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 99. G paid Rs.1,00,000 to H to influence the head of the Government Organisation in order to provide him some employment. On his failure to provide the job, G sued H for recovery of the amount. Which of the following is correct? (a) The contract is valid and G can recover the amount from H. (b) The contract is void as it is opposed to public policy and G cannot recover (c) G can recover the amount with interest (d) G can recover the amount of Rs.1,00,000 and damages 100. A sold a tin of disinfectant powder to K without warning knowing fully that if the tin was not opened with care, it will likely to cause injury. K was injured while opening the tin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) A is not liable to K under the Doctrine of caveat emptor (b) A is liable for the damages (c) A has no duty to disclose the facts to K (d) The buyer has the responsibility to enquire about all the things before purchasing the goods SECTION – C : GENERAL ECONOMICS (50 MARKS) 101 What implication does resource scarcity have for the satisfaction of wants? (a) Not all wants can be satisfied (b) We will never be faced with the need to make choices (c) We must develop ways to decrease our individual wants (d) The discovery of new natural resources is necessary to increase our ability to satisfy wants 102. Who expressed the view that “Economics should be neutral between ends”? (a) Robbins (b) Marshall (c) Pigou (d) Adam Smith 103. Which of the following pairs of goods is an example of substitutes? (a) Tea and sugar (b) Tea and coffee (c) Pen and ink (d) Shirt and trousers 104. The consumer is in equilibrium when the following condition is satisfied: MU P MU P x > x x < x (a) (b) MU P MU P y y y y MU P x = x (c) (d) None of the above MU P y y Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 15 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 105. In the production of wheat, all of the following are variable factors that are used by the farmer except: (a) the seed and fertilizer used when the crop is planted (b) the field that has been cleared of trees and in which the crop is planted (c) the tractor used by the farmer in planting and cultivating not only wheat but also corn and barley (d) the number of hours that the farmer spends cultivating the wheat fields 106. In describing a given production technology, the short run is best described as lasting (a) up to six months from now (b) up to five years from now (c) as long as all inputs are fixed (d) as long as at least one input is fixed 107. Price-taking firms, i.e., firms that operate in a perfectly competitive market, are said to be “small” relative to the market. Which of the following best describes this smallness? (a) The individual firm must have fewer than 10 employees (b) The individual firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve (c) The individual firm has assets of less than Rs.20 lakh (d) The individual firm is unable to affect market price through its output decisions 108. A firm encounters its “shutdown point” when: (a) average total cost equals price at the profit-maximizing level of output (b) average variable cost equals price at the profit-maximizing level of output (c) average fixed cost equals price at the profit-maximizing level of output (d) marginal cost equals price at the profit-maximizing level of output 109. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) The public sector was given a dominant position in the newly Independent India (b) The foreign trade policy post Independence allowed free trade of all goods and services (c) Monetary policy post Independence sought to keep the CRR at a very low level (d) None of the above 110. The unsustainable levels of government deficits in the late 80’s can be attributed to: (a) high levels of government expenditures (b) insufficient revenues (c) poor returns on government investments (d) all of the above 111. What is India’s rank in world population? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth 16 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 112. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Gini coefficients are often used for measuring poverty in relative sense (b) When poverty is related to the distribution of income or consumption expenditure, it is absolute poverty (c) In India, we mainly use the concept of relative poverty for measuring poverty. (d) None of the above 113. The industrial sector faced the process of retrogression and deceleration during (a) 1950-1965 (b) 1990-2005 (c) 1980-1995 (d) 1965-1980 114. Find the tax which is direct tax among the following: (a) Personal income tax (b) Excise duty (c) Sales tax (d) Service tax 115. As a result of the New Industrial Policy, 1991: (a) the public sector has been stripped off all its power (b) the public sector has been given the commanding heights of the economy (c) the public sector’s portfolio will be reviewed with greater realism. The focus will be on strategic high tech and essential infrastructure industries (d) the public sector’s management has been passed over to the private sector 116. In order to control credit: (a) CRR should be increased and Bank rate should be decreased (b) CRR should be reduced and Bank rate should be reduced (c) CRR should be increased and Bank rate should be increased (d) CRR should be reduced and Bank rate should be increased 117. Under ———— market condition, firms make normal profits in the long run. (a) Perfect Competition (b) Monopoly (c) Oligopoly (d) None of the above 118. Larger production of ———— goods would lead to higher production in future. (a) Consumer goods (b) Capital goods (c) Agricultural goods (d) Public goods 119. Consumer surplus means ———— . (a) the area inside the budget line (b) the area between the average revenue and marginal revenue curves (c) the difference between the maximum amount a person is willing to pay for a good and its market price (d) none of the above Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 17 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 120. A horizontal supply curve parallel to the quantity axis implies that the elasticity of supply is ———— (a) zero (b) infinite (c) equal to one (d) greater than zero but less than one 121. The average product of labour is maximized when marginal product of labour _________. (a) equals the average product of labour (b) equals zero (c) is maximized (d) none of the above 122. When _________, we know that the firms are earning just normal profits. (a) AC = AR (b) MC = MR (c) MC = AC (d) AR = MR 123. In a free market economy, when consumers increase their purchase of a good and the level of _________ exceeds _________ then prices tend to rise. (a) demand, supply (b) supply, demand (c) prices, demand (d) profits, supply 124. _________ is the apex bank for agriculture credit. (a) RBI (b) SIDBI (c) NABARD (d) ICICI 125. India has the _________ largest scientific and technical manpower in the world. (a) fifth (b) tenth (c) eighth (d) second 126. About _________ percent of the sick units in India are small units. (a) 10 percent (b) 4 percent (c) 30 percent (d) 96 percent 127. The Eleventh Plan aims at achieving a growth rate of _________ in the industrial sector. (a) 5 per cent (b) 8 percent (c) 10 percent (d) 6 percent 128. Nearly _________ percent of working population is engaged in the service sector (2004-05). (a) 28.5 percent (b) 45 percent (c) 80 percent (d) 50 percent 129. Service sector accounted for nearly _________ percent of exports (2007-08). (a) 10 percent (b) 20 percent (c) 45 percent (d) 80 percent 18 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 130 A situation of employment in which a person is apparently employed but his contribution to the production is almost nil is called _________ unemployment. (a) structural (b) chronic (c) disguised (d) cyclical 131. _________ unemployment may result when some workers are temporarily out of work while changing job. (a) Cyclical (b) Voluntary (c) Frictional (d) Seasonal 132. According to the Planning Commission, using Mixed Recall period (MRP) _________% people were below poverty line in 2004-05. (a) 26.2 (b) 25.2 (c) 27.8 (d) 21.8 Read the following paragraph and answer questions 133-134. In 1940, Hitler’s air force bombed Rotterdam, a beautiful city in Holland. Twenty five thousand homes, 1200 factories, 69 schools and 13 hospitals were destroyed. Nearly 75,000 people became homeless and 1000 people died. 35 % of the port was gutted by the German army. 133. The above destruction would mean: (a) A complete wipe off of the Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) of Rotterdam (b) An outward shift of the PPC of Rotterdam (c) An inward shift of the PPC of Rotterdam (d) A downward movement on the same PPC of Rotterdam 134. If immediately after the war, Rotterdam rebuilt its port with the help of most up to date cranes, docks and cargo handling technology. By the end of the reconstruction, ships were loading and unloading faster and at lower cost than any where in the world. It became more efficient than it was before the destruction. This means: (a) Rotterdam has come back to its original PPC (b) Rotterdam has shifted to a higher PPC (c) Rotterdam has shifted to a lower PPC (d) Nothing can be said Read the following figure and answer questions 135-137. 135. Which of the following represents the concept of trade-offs? (a) A movement from point A to point B. (b) A movement from point U to point C. (c) Point W. (d) Point U. Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 19 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 136. Which of the following would not move the PPF for this economy closer to point W? (a) A decrease in the amount of unemployed labour resources (b) A shift in preferences toward greater capital formation (c) An improvement in the overall level of technology (d) An increase in the population growth rate 137. Unemployment or underemployment of one or more resources is illustrated by production at point: (a) A (b) C (c) U (d) W Use Table 1 to answer questions 138-140. Output (O) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Total Cost (TC): Rs.240 Rs.330 Rs.410 Rs.480 Rs.540 Rs.610 Rs.690 138. The average fixed cost of 2 units of output is: (a) Rs.80 (b) Rs.85 (c) Rs.120 (d) Rs.205 139. The marginal cost of the sixth unit of output is: (a) Rs.133 (b) Rs.75 (c) Rs.80 (d) Rs.450 20 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 140. Diminishing marginal returns starts to occur between units: (a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 4 and 5 (d) 5 and 6 Use Table 2 to answer questions 141-143 Table 2: Production Possibilities Production possibilities A B C D E F Good A 0 1 2 3 4 5 Good B 30 28 24 18 10 0 141. According to Table 2, the opportunity cost of increasing Good A’s production from 2 to 4 units is equal to: (a) 10 units of B (b) 14 units of B (c) 24 units of B (d) 2 units of B 142. According to Table 2, the opportunity cost of increasing one unit of Good B from 10 units to 18 units is: (a) 3 units of A (b) 1 unit of A (c) 0.125 units of A (d) 0.5 units of A 143. Given the data in Table 2, as one moves from successively from point A to point B, C, D, E and F, the opportunity cost of Good A: (a) increases as more of good A is produced (b) decreases as more of good A is produced (c) remains constant (d) is always equal to one unit of B 144. Suppose a department store has a sale on its silverware. If the price of a plate-setting is reduced from Rs. 300 to Rs.200 and the quantity demanded increases from 3,000 plate- settings to 5,000 plate-settings, what is the price elasticity of demand for silverware? (a) .8 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.25 (d) 1.50 145. A discount store has a special offer on CDs. It reduces their price from Rs.150 to Rs.100. Suppose the store manager observes that the quantity demanded increases from 700 CDs to 1,300 CDs. What is the price elasticity of demand for CDs? (a) .8 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.25 (d) 1.50 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 21 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 146. If the local pizzeria raises the price of a medium pizza from Rs.60 to Rs.100 and quantity demanded falls from 700 pizzas a night to 100 pizzas a night, the price elasticity of demand for pizzas is: (a) .67 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0 147. Suppose that a sole proprietorship is earning total revenues of Rs.100,000 and is incurring explicit costs of Rs.75,000. If the owner could work for another company for Rs.30,000 a year, we would conclude that: (a) the firm is incurring an economic loss (b) implicit costs are Rs.25,000 (c) the total economic costs are Rs.100,000 (d) the individual is earning an economic profit of Rs.25,000 Use Table 3 to answer questions 148-150 Table 3 Hours of Labour Total Output Marginal Product 0 — — 1 100 100 2 — 80 3 240 — 148. What is the total output when 2 hours of labour are employed? (a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 180 (d) 200 149. What is the marginal product of the third hour of labour? (a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 100 (d) 240 150. What is the average product of the first three hours of labour? (a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 100 (d) 240 SECTION – D : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (50 MARKS) 151. Simple random sampling is very effective if (a) The population is not very large (b) The population is not much heterogeneous (c) The population is partitioned into several sections (d) Both (a) and (b) 22 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 152. Which of the following pairs of events are mutually exclusive? (a) A : The student reads in a school B : He studies Philosophy (b) A : Raju was born in India B : He is a fine Engineer (c) A : Ruma is 16 years old B : She is a good singer (d) A : Peter is under 15 years of age B : Peter is a voter of Kolkata 153. Which of the following statements is untrue for tabulation? (a) Statistical analysis of data requires tabulation (b) It facilitates comparison between rows and not columns (c) Complicated data can be presented (d) Diagrammatic representation of data requires tabulation 154. For a moderately skewed distribution, which of the following relationship holds? (a) Mean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median) (b) Median – Mode = 3 (Mean– Median) (c) Mean – Median = 3 (Mean – Mode) (d) Mean – Median = 3 (Median – Mode) 155. If two events A and B are independent, then P(A∩B) (a) Equals to P(A) × P(B) (b) Equals to P(A) × P(B) (c) Equals to P(A) × P(B/A) (d) Equals to P(B) × P(A/B) 156. Regression analysis is concerned with (a) Establishing a mathematical relationship between two variables (b) Measuring the extent of association between two variables (c) Predicting the value of the dependent variable for a given value of the independent variable (d) Both (a) and (c) 157. For a Poisson distribution, (a) Mean and standard deviation are equal. (b) Mean and variance are equal. (c) Standard deviation and variance are equal. (d) Both (a) and (b). 158. The best method to collect data in case of natural calamity is (a) Personal interview (b) Telephone interview (c) Mailed questionnaire method (d) Indirect interview 159. Sequence of periodic payments/ receipts regularly over a period of time is called (a) Perpetuity (b) Annuity (c) Annuity regular (d) Annuity due Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 23 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 160. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Usually mean is the best measure of central tendency (b) Usually median is the best measure of central tendency (c) Usually mode is the best measure of central tendency (d) Normally, GM is the best measure of central tendency 161. ________ distribution is symmetrical when p = 0.5. (a) Chi- square (b) Population (c) Poisson (d) Binomial 162. log 32/4 is equal to ________. (a) log 32/log4 (b) log 32 – log4 (c) 2³ (d) None of these 163. If ________, the roots are real and equal. (a) b² – 4ac= 0 (b) b² – 4ac > 0 (c) b² – 4ac < 0 (d) b² – 4ac > 0 164. ________ is the mean proportional between 12x2 and 27y2. (a) 18 xy (b) 81 xy (c) 8 xy (d) 19.5 xy 165. The letters of the words CALCUTTA and AMERICA are arranged in all possible ways. The ratio of the number of these arrangement is _______. (a) 1: 2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 1.5:1 166. The 7th term of the series 6, 12, 24……is_______. (a) 384 (b) 834 (c) 438 (d) 854 167. The two variables are known to be_______ if the movement on the part of one variable does not produce any movement of the other variable in a particular direction. (a) Correlated (b) Positive correlated (c) Negative correlated (d) Uncorrelated 168. If two letters are taken at random from the word HOME, _________ is the probability that none of the letters would be vowels. (a) 1/6 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/4 24 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 169. In ________ years a sum will double at 5% p.a. compound interest. (a) 15 years 3 months (b) 14 years 2 months (c) 14 years 3 months (d) 15 years 2 months 170. When the data are classified in respect of successive time points, they are known as_______. (a) Chronological data (b) Geographical data (c) Ordinal data (d) Cordinal data x2 −4 171. lim is equal to x→∞ x+2 (a) 4 (b) –4 (c) Does not exist (d) None of these 172. The derivative of y = x+1 is (a) 1 / x+1 (b) – 1 / x+1 (c) 1 / 2 x+1 (d) None of these ∫ 173. logxdx is equal to (a) x logx (b) x logx – x2 + k (c) x logx + k (d) None of these 174. If g(x) = x–1/x, g(–½) is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3/2 (d) 3 175. The sum of first n natural number (a) (n/2) (n + 1) (b) (n/6) (n + 1) (2n + 1) (c) [(n/2) (n + 1)]² (d) None of these. 176. Chain index is equal to linkrelativeof currentyear×chainindexof thecurrentyear (a) 100 linkrelativeof previousyear×chainindexof thecurrentyear (b) 100 linkrelativeof currentyear×chainindexof thepreviousyear (c) 100 linkrelativeof previousyear×chainindexof thepreviousyear (d) 100 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 25 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 177. If from a population with 25 members, a random sample without replacement of 2 members is taken, the number of all such samples is (a) 300 (b) 625 (c) 50 (d) 600 178. If A = Rs. 1000, n = 2 years, R = 6% p.a compound interest payable half-yearly then principal ( P ) is (a) Rs. 888.80 (b) Rs. 880 (c) 800 (d) None of these 179. There are 10 trains plying between Calcutta and Delhi. The number of ways in which a person can go from Calcutta to Delhi and return by a different train is (a) 99 (b) 90 (c) 80 (d) None of these 180. Every person shakes hands with each other in a party and the total number of hand shakes is 66. The number of guests in the party is (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 181. The sum of a certain number of terms of an AP series –8, –6, –4,…… is 52. The number of terms is (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 11 (d) None of these 182. If you save 1 paise today, 2 paise the next day 4 paise the succeeding day and so on, then your total savings in two weeks will be (a) Rs. 163 (b) Rs. 183 (c) Rs. 163.83 (d) None of these 183. If the set P has 3 elements, Q four and R two then the set P×Q×R contains (a) 9 elements (b) 20 elements (c) 24 elements (d) None of these 184. A function f(x) is defined by f(x) = (x–2)+1 over all real values of x. now f(x) is (a) Continuous at x = 2 (b) Discontinuous at x = 2 (c) Undefined at x = 2 (d) None of these 26 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 185. The number of accidents for seven days in a locality is given below: No. of accidents : 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Frequency : 15 19 22 31 9 3 2 What is the number of cases when 3 or less accident occurred? (a) 56 (b) 6 (c) 68 (d) 87 186. On the average experienced person does 5 units of work while a fresh one 3 units of work daily but the employer has to maintain an output of at least 30 units of work per day. This situation can be expressed as (a) 5x + 3y < 30 (b) 5x + 3y >30 (c) 5x + 3y < 30 (d) None of these 187. The mean salary for a group of 40 female workers is 5200 per month and that for a group of 60 male workers is 6800 per month. What is the combined mean salary? (a) 6500 (b) 6200 (c) 6160 (d) 6100 188. The standard deviation of 10, 16, 10, 16, 10, 10, 16, 16 is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 0 189. A bag contains 15 one rupee coins, 25 two rupee coins and 10 five rupee coins. If a coin is selected at random from the bag, then the probability of not selecting a one rupee coin is (a) 0.30 (b) 0.70 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.20 190. If a card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards, what is the chance of getting a Spade or an ace? (a) 4/13 (b) 5/13 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.20 191. The quartile deviation of a normal distribution with mean 10 and Standard Deviation 4 is (a) 0.675 (b) 67.50 (c) 2.70 (d) 3.20 192. If there are 3 observations 15, 20, 25 then the sum of deviation of the observations from their A.M. is (a) 0 (b) 5 (c) –5 (d) None of these. Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 27 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 1 193. ∫∫∫∫∫eax dx eax (a) ex + c (b) +c a (c) log x + c (d) eax + c d 194. ( ax) dx (a) ax log a (b) log x e (c) eax (d) ae ax 195. Five times of a positive whole number is 3 less than twice the square of the number. The number is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) –3 (d) 2 196. If the profits of a company remains the same for the last ten months, then the standard deviation of profits for these ten months would be ? (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) (a) or (c) 197. The mean of a binomial distribution with parameter n and p is (a) n (1– p). (b) np (1 – p). (c) np. (d) np(1−p) 198. The total area of the normal curve is (a) One (b) 50 per cent (c) 0.50 (d) Any value between 0 and 1 199. What is the present value of Re.1 to be received after two years compounded annually at 10%? (a) 0.73 (b) 0.83 (c) 0.93 (d) None of these. 200. The sum of the series 9, 5, 1,…. to 100 terms is (a) –18900 (b) 18900 (c) 19900 (d) None of these. (cid:2)(cid:2)(cid:2) 28 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India BOARD OF STUDIES THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA COMMON PROFICIENCY TEST Model Test Paper – BOS/CPT – 2 Time : 4 hours Maximum Marks : 200 The test is divided into four sections Every correct answer carries + 1 mark each and – 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. SECTION – A : FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING (60 MARKS) 1. Which of the following is not a sub-field of accounting? (a) Management accounting (b) Cost accounting (c) Financial accounting (d) Book-keeping 2. Revenue from sale of products, is generally, realized in the period in which (a) Cash is collected (b) Sale is made (c) Products are manufactured (d) None of the above 3. The determination of expenses for an accounting period is based on the principle of (a) Objectivity (b) Materiality (c) Matching (d) Entity 4. It is essential to standardize the accounting principles and policies in order to ensure (a) Transparency (b) Consistency (c) Comparability (d) All of the above Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 29 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 5. Change in accounting estimate means (a) Differences arising between certain parameters estimated earlier and re-estimated during the current period. (b) Differences arising between certain parameters estimated earlier and actual results achieved during the current period. (c) Differences arising between certain parameters re-estimated during the current period and actual results achieved during the current period. (d) Both (a) and (b). 6. Which account is the odd one out? (a) Office Furniture & Equipment (b) Freehold Land and Buildings (c) Stock of raw materials (d) Plant and Machinery 7. In Double Entry System of Book-keeping every business transaction affects: (a) Two accounts (b) Two sides of the same account (c) The same account on two different dates (d) All of the above 8. Which of the following types of information are found in subsidiary ledgers, but not in the general ledger? (a) Total cost of goods sold for the period (b) The quantity of a particular product sold during the period (c) The amount owed to a particular creditor (d) The portion of total current assets that consist of cash 9. Contra entries are passed only when (a) Double column cash book is prepared (b) Three-column cash book is prepared (c) Simple cash book is prepared (d) None of the above 10. The preparation of a trial balance is for: (a) Locating errors of complete omission; (b) Locating errors of principle; (c) Locating clerical errors. (d) All of the above 11. Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a substantial degree of estimation, is termed as ________ (a) Provision (b) Liability (c) Contingent liability (d) None of the above 30 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 12. When preparing a Bank Reconciliation Statement, if you start with a debit balance as per the Cash Book, then cheques issued but not presented within the period are __________ (a) Added (b) Deducted (c) Not required to be adjusted (d) None of the above 13. Under inflationary conditions, ________ method will show highest value of closing stock? (a) FIFO (b) LIFO (c) Weighted Average (d) None of the above 14. In the case of downward revaluation of an asset, which is for the first time revalued, _______ account is debited. (a) Fixed Asset (b) Revaluation Reserve (c) Profit & Loss account (d) General Reserve 15. The portion of the acquisition cost of the asset, yet to be allocated to Profit and Loss Account is known as ________ (a) Book value (b) Accumulated value (c) Realisable value (d) Salvage value 16. If a concern proposes to discontinue its business from March 2010 and decides to dispose off all its assets within a period of 4 months, the Balance Sheet as on March 31, 2010 should indicate the assets at their _________ (a) Historical cost (b) Net realizable value (c) Cost less depreciation (d) Cost price or market value, whichever is lower 17. The balance of the petty cash is _________ (a) an expense (b) income (c) an asset (d) liability 18. Sales for the year ended 31st March, 2010 amounted to Rs. 10,00,000. Sales included goods sold to Mr. A for Rs. 50,000 at a profit of 20% on cost. Such goods are still lying in the godown at the buyer’s risk. Therefore, such goods should be treated as part of (a) Sales (b) Closing stock (c) Goods in transit (d) Sales return 19. As per Section 37 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the executors would be entitled at their choice to the interest calculated from the date of death till the date of payment on the final amount due to the dead partner at ________ percent per annum. (a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 31 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 20. If del-credere commission is allowed for bad debt, consignee will debit the bad debt amount to: (a) Commission Earned A/c (b) Consignor A/c (c) Debtors A/c (d) General Trading A/c 21. Mr. A purchased a machinery costing Rs. 1,00,000 on 1st October, 2005. Transportation and installation charges were incurred amounting Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively. Dismantling charges of the old machine, in place of which new machine was purchased, amounted Rs. 10,000. Market value of the machine was estimated at Rs. 1,20,000 on 31st March 2006. While finalising the annual accounts, A values the machinery at Rs. 1,20,000 in his books. Which of the following concepts was violated by A? (a) Cost concept (b) Matching concept (c) Realisation concept (d) Periodicity concept 22. Mohan purchased goods for Rs. 15,00,000 and sold 4/5th of the goods amounting Rs. 18,00,000 and paid expenses amounting Rs. 2,70,000 during the year, 2009. He paid Rs. 5,000 for an electricity bill of Dec. 2008 and advance salaries amounting Rs. 15,000 was paid for the month of Jan. 2010. He counted net profit as Rs. 3,50,000. The net profit calculated by him is correct according to _________ (a) Entity concept (b) Periodicity concept (c) Matching concept (d) Conservatism concept 23. W Ltd. issued 20,000, 8% debentures of Rs.10 each at par, which are redeemable after 5 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debentures to be written off every year will be_________ (a) Rs. 40,000 (b) Rs. 10,000 (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 8,000 24. S Ltd. issued 2,000, 10% Preference shares of Rs.100 each at par, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 1,500 Equity Shares of Rs.100 each at a premium of 20% per share. At the time of redemption of Preference Shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account will be _________ (a) Rs. 50,000 (b) Rs. 40,000 (c) Rs. 2,00,000 (d) Rs. 2,20,000 25. G Ltd. acquired assets worth Rs.7,50,000 from H Ltd. by issue of shares of Rs.100 at a premium of 25%. The number of shares to be issued by G Ltd. to settle the purchase consideration will be_________ (a) 6,000 shares (b) 7,500 shares (c) 9,375 shares (d) 5,625 shares 32 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 26. The following information pertains to X Ltd.: Equity share capital called up Rs. 5,00,000 Calls in arrear Rs. 40,000 Calls in advance Rs. 25,000 Proposed dividend 15% The amount of dividend payable will be (a) Rs. 75,000 (b) Rs. 72,750 (c) Rs. 71,250 (d) Rs. 69,000 27. The subscribed share capital of S Ltd. is Rs.80,00,000 of Rs.100 each. There were no calls in arrear till the final call was made. The final call made was paid on 77,500 shares. The calls in arrear amounted to Rs.62,500. The final call on each share will be_________ (a) Rs. 25 (b) Rs. 7.80 (c) Rs. 20 (d) Rs. 62.50 28. A Company wishes to earn a 20% profit margin on selling price. Which of the following is the profit mark up on cost, which will achieve the required profit margin? (a) 33% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) None of the above 29. A, B and C are the partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2, took a joint life policy of Rs. 30,000. On the death of B what amount will be payable to each partner. (a) A – Rs. 22,000 and B – Rs. 8,000 (b) A – Rs. 14,000 and B – Rs. 16,000 (c) A – Rs. 15,000, B – Rs. 9,000 and C – Rs. 6,000 (d) A – Rs. 10,000, B – Rs. 8,000 and C – Rs. 10,000 30. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1 respectively with the capital balance of Rs. 50,000 for A and B, for C Rs. 25,000. B declared to retire from the firm and balance in reserve on the date was Rs. 15,000. If goodwill of the firm was valued as Rs. 30,000 and profit on revaluation was Rs. 7,050 then what amount will be transferred to the loan account of B? (a) Rs. 70,820 (b) Rs. 50,820 (c) Rs. 25,820 (d) Rs. 58,820 31. A and B, who share profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2 has the following balances: Capital of A Rs. 50,000; Capital of B Rs. 30,000; Reserve Fund Rs. 15,000. They admit C as a partner, who contributes to the firm Rs. 25,000 for 1/6th share in the partnership. If C is to purchase 1/6th share in the partnership from the existing partners A and B in the ratio of 3:2 for Rs. 25,000, find closing capital of C. (a) Rs. 25,000 (b) Rs. 19,000 (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 18,000 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 33 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 32. P and Q are partners sharing Profits in the ratio of 2:1. R is admitted to the partnership with effect from 1st April on the term that he will bring Rs. 20,000 as his capital for 1/4th share and pays Rs. 9,000 for goodwill, half of which is to be withdrawn by P and Q. How much cash can P & Q withdraw from the firm on account of goodwill? (a) Rs. 3,000 and Rs. 1,500 (b) Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 3,000 (c) Nil (d) None of the above 33. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio 5:3, they admitted C giving him 3/10th share of profit. If C acquires 1/5th share from A and 1/10th from B, new profit sharing ratio will be _________ (a) 5:6:3 (b) 2:4:6 (c) 18:24:38 (d) 17:11:12 34. A, B and C are equal partners. D is admitted to the firm for one-fourth share. D brings Rs. 20,000 capital and Rs. 5,000 being half of the premium for goodwill. The total value of goodwill of the firm is_________ (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 40,000. (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) None of the above 35. A and B are partners with capitals of Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively and sharing profits equally. They admitted C as their third partner with one-fourth profits of the firm on the payment of Rs. 12,000. The amount of hidden goodwill is_________ (a) Rs. 6,000 (b) Rs. 10,000 (c) Rs. 8,000 (d) None of the above 36. A & B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. On admission, C brings Rs. 70,000 cash and Rs. 48,000 against goodwill. New profit sharing ratio between A, B and C are 7:5:4. The sacrificing ratio of A:B will be _________ (a) 3:1 (b) 4:7 (c) 5:4 (d) 2:1 37. Bill and Monica are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2 having the capital of Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively. They are entitled to 9% p.a. interest on capital before distributing the profits. During the year firm earned Rs. 7,800 after allowing interest on capital. Profits apportioned among Bill and Monica is _________ (a) Rs. 4,680 and Rs. 3,120 (b) Rs. 4,800 and Rs. 3,000 (c) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,800 (d) None of the above 34 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 38. A merchant sends out his goods casually to his dealers on approval basis. All such transactions are, however, recorded as actual sales and are passed through the sales book. On 31-12- 2009, it was found that 100 articles at a sale price of 200 each sent on approval basis were recorded as actual sales at that price. The sale price was made at cost plus 25%. The amount of stock on approval at the end of the year will be _________ (a) Rs.16,000 (b) Rs. 20,000 (c) Rs. 15,000 (d) None of the above 39. On 16.6.2010 X draws a bill on Y for Rs 25,000 for 30 days. 19th July 2010 is a public holiday, Maturity date of the bill will be: (a) 19th July 2010 (b) 18th July 2010 (c) 17th July 2010 (d) 16th July 2010 40. Bobby sold goods worth Rs 25,000 to Bonny. Bonny immediately accepted a bill on 1.11.09, payable after 2 months. Bobby discounted this bill @ 18% p.a. on 15.11.09. On the due date Bonny failed to discharge the bill. Later on Bonny became insolvent and 50 paise is recovered from Bonny’s estate. How much amount of bad debt will be recorded in the books of Bobby? (a) Rs. 12,500 (b) Rs. 9,437 (c) Rs. 11,687 (d) Rs. 13,650 41. Ram’s acceptance to Dinesh for Rs 8,000 renewed for 3 months on the condition that Rs 4,000 be paid in cash immediately and the remaining amount will carry interest @ 12% p.a. The amount of interest will be _________ (a) Rs. 120 (b) Rs. 80 (c) Rs. 90 (d) Rs. 160 42. A draws a bill on B for Rs. 30,000. A wants to endorse it to C in settlement of Rs. 35,000 at 2% discount with the help of B’s acceptance and balance in cash. How much cash A will pay to B? (a) Rs. 4,300 (b) Rs. 4,000 (c) Rs. 4,100 (d) Rs. 5,000 43. A drew a bill on B for Rs. 50,000 for 3 months. Proceeds are to be shared equally. A got the bill discounted at 12% p.a. and remits required proceeds to B. The amount of such remittance will be _________ (a) Rs. 24,250 (b) Rs. 25,000 (c) Rs. 16,167 (d) Rs. 32,333 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 35 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 44. A and B enter into a joint venture to underwrite the shares of K Ltd. @ 5% underwritting commission. K Ltd. make an equity issue of 100000 equity shares of Rs 10 each. 80% of the issue are subscribed by the party. The profit sharing ratio between A and B is 3:2. The balance shares not subscribed by the public, purchased by A and B in profit sharing ratio. How many shares to be purchased by A? (a) 80,000 shares (b) 72,000 shares (c) 12,000 shares (d) 8,000 shares 45. R and M entered into a joint venture to purchase and sell new year gifts. They agreed to share the profits and losses equally. R purchased goods worth Rs.1,00,000 and spent Rs.10,000 in sending the goods to M. He also paid Rs.5,000 for insurance. M spent Rs. 10,000 as selling expenses and sold goods for Rs.2,00,000. Remaining goods were taken over by him at Rs. 5,000. Find out profit on venture. (a) Rs. 70,000 (b) Rs. 75,000 (c) Rs. 80,000 (d) Rs. 85,000 46. A and B entered into a Joint Venture. A purchased goods costing Rs. 2,00,000, B sold 4/5th of the same for Rs. 2,50,000. Balance goods were taken over by B at cost less 20%. If same set of books is maintained, find out profit on venture. (a) Rs. 82,000 (b) Rs. 90,000 (c) Rs. 50,000 (d) Nil. 47. If unsold goods costing Rs. 20,000 is taken over by Venturer at Rs. 15,000, the Joint Venture A/c will be credited by: (a) Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.15,000 (c) Rs.5,000 (d) Nil 48. X of Kolkata sends out goods costing Rs. 1,00,000 to consignee Y of Delhi. 3/5th of the goods were sold by consignee for Rs. 70,000. Commission 2% on sales plus 20% of gross sales less all commission exceeds cost price. The amount of Commission will be: (a) Rs. 2,833 (b) Rs. 2,900 (c) Rs. 3000 (d) Rs. 2,800 49. Rahim of Kolkata sends out 1,000 boxes to Ram of Delhi costing Rs. 100 each at an Invoice Price of Rs. 120 each. Goods send out on consignment to be credited in general trading account will be: (a) Rs.1,00,000 (b) Rs.1,20,000 (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) None of the above 36 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 50. Goods sent out on consignment Rs. 2,00,000. Consignor’s expenses Rs. 5,000. Consignee’s expenses Rs. 2,000. Cash sales Rs. 1,00,000, credit sales Rs. 1,10,000. Consignment stock Rs. 40,000. Ordinary commission payable to consignee Rs. 3,000. Del-credere commission Rs. 2,000. The amount irrecoverable from customer Rs. 2,000. What will be the profit on consignment? (a) Rs. 38,000 (b) Rs. 40,000 (c) Rs. 36,000 (d) Rs. 43,000 51. A of Kolkata sends out 500 boxes to B of Delhi costing Rs. 200 each. Consignor’s expenses Rs 5000. 1/5th of the boxes were still in transit. 3/4th of the goods received by consignee, were sold. The value of goods still in transit will be: (a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 21,000 (c) Rs. 21,200 (d) None of the above 52. If sales revenue are Rs. 4,00,000; cost of goods sold is Rs. 3,10,000 and operating expenses are Rs.60,000 the gross profit is _________ (a) Rs. 30,000 (b) Rs. 90,000 (c) Rs. 3,40,000 (d) Rs. 60,000 53. If sales are Rs. 2,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25%, then the cost of goods sold will be _________ (a) Rs. 2,000 (b) Rs. 1,500 (c) Rs. 1,600 (d) None of the above 54. Amit Ltd. purchased a machine on 1.1.2009 for Rs 1,20,000. Installation expenses were Rs. 10,000. Residual value after 10 years Rs. 5,000. On 01.07.2009, expenses for repairs were incurred to the extent of Rs. 2,000. Depreciation is provided under straight line method. Depreciation rate is 10%. Annual Depreciation will be ________ (a) Rs.13,000 (b) Rs.17,000 (c) Rs. 21,000 (d) Rs.25,000 55. In the books of D Ltd. the machinery account shows a debit balance of Rs. 60,000 as on April 1, 2009. The machinery was sold on September 30, 2010 for Rs. 30,000. The company charges depreciation @ 20% p.a. on diminishing balance method. Profit / Loss on sale of the mahinery will be _________ (a) Rs. 13,200 profit (b) Rs. 13,200 loss (c) Rs. 6,800 profit (d) Rs. 6,800 loss 56. The total cost of goods available for sale with a company during the current year is Rs.12,00,000 and the total sales during the period are Rs.13,00,000. If the gross profit margin 1 of the company is 33 % on cost, the closing inventory during the current year is 3 (a) Rs. 4,00,000 (b) Rs. 3,00,000 (c) Rs. 2,25,000 (d) Rs. 2,60,000 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 37 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 57. Consider the following data pertaining to H Ltd. for the month of March 2010: Particulars As on March 1, 2010 (Rs.) As on March 31, 2010 (Rs.) Stock 1,80,000 90,000 The company made purchases amounting Rs. 3,30,000 on credit. The goods are sold at 25% above the cost. The sales for the month of March 2010 were: (a) Rs. 4,12,500 (b) Rs. 5,25,000 (c) Rs. 90,000 (d) Rs. 3,15,000. 58. When preparing a Bank Reconciliation Statement, if you start with the debit balance as per Cash Book, cheques issued but not presented within the period should be _________ (a) Added (b) Deducted (c) Not required to be adjusted (d) None of the above 59. Rs. 200 paid as wages for erecting a machine should be debited to _________ (a) Repair account (b) Machine account (c) Capital account (d) Furniture account 60. Rs. 2,500 spent on the overhaul of a machine purchased second-hand is _________ (a) Capital expenditure (b) Revenue expenditure (c) Deferred revenue expenditure (d) None of the above SECTION – B: MERCANTILE LAWS (40 MARKS) 61. The law of contract in India is contained in: (a) Indian Contract Act, 1862 (b) Indian Contract Act, 1962 (c) Indian Contract Act, 1872 (d) Indian Contract Act, 1972 62. A void agreement is one which is: (a) Valid but not enforceable (b) Enforceable at the option of both the parties (c) Enforceable at the option of one party (d) Not enforceable in a court of law 63. Which of the following is false? An acceptance: (a) Must be communicated (b) Must be absolute and unconditional (c) Must be accepted by a person having authority to accept. (d) May be presumed from silence of offeree. 38 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 64. A proposal when accepted becomes a (a) Promise. (b) Contract. (c) Offer. (d) Acceptance. 65. Which of the following statement is false? Consideration: (a) Must move at the desire of the promisor. (b) May move from any person. (c) Must be illusory. (d) Must be of some value. 66. Which of the following statement is true? (a) A contract with a minor is voidable at the option of the minor. (b) An agreement with a minor can be ratified after he attains majority. (c) A person who is usually of an unsound mind cannot enter into contract even when he is of a sound mind. (d) A person who is usually of a sound mind cannot enter into contract when he is of unsound mind. 67. Which of the following statement is true? (a) A threat to commit suicide does not amount to coercion. (b) Undue influence involves use of physical pressure. (c) Ignorance of law is no excuse. (d) Silence always amounts to fraud. 68. On the valid performance of the contractual obligations by the parties, the contract (a) is discharged. (b) becomes enforceable. (c) becomes void. (d) none of these. 69. A contract is discharged by rescission which means the (a) change in one or more terms of the contract. (b) acceptance of lesser performance. (c) abandonment of rights by a party. (d) cancellation of the existing contract. 70. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with _________ (a) sale (b) mortgage. (c) pledge. (d) all of the above. 71. Which one of the following is/are document of title to goods? (a) railway receipt. (b) wharfinger’s certificate. (c) warehouse keeper’s certificate. (d) all of the above Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 39 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 72. Which one of the following is not true? (a) Document showing title is different from document of title. (b) Bill of lading is a document of title to goods. (c) Specific goods can be identified and agreed upon at the time of the contract of Sale. (d) None of the above. 73. In which form of the contract, the property in the goods passes to the buyer immediately: (a) agreement to sell. (b) hire purchase. (c) sale (d) instalment to sell. 74. Which one of the following is not an implied warranty? (a) Warranty as to undisturbed possession. (b) Warranty as to existence of encumbrance. (c) Disclosure of dangerous nature of goods. (d) Warranty as to quality or fitness by usage of trade. 75. A firm is the name of: (a) The Partners (b) The minors in the firm. (c) The business under which the firm carries on business (d) The collective name under which it carries on business. 76. A partnership at will is one: (a) which does not have any deed (b) which does not have any partner (c) which does not provide for how long the business will continue (d) which cannot be dissolved. 77. Every partner has the right to: (a) Take part in the business of the firm (b) To share exclusive profits (c) To use the property of the firm for personal purposes (d) Pay taxes 78. Which of the following is not disability of an unregistered firm? (a) It cannot file a suit against third parties (b) Its partners cannot file a suit against a firm. (c) It cannot claim a set-off exceeding Rs. 100. (d) It cannot be sued by a third party. 40 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 79. Which of the following is not the right of a partner i.e., which he cannot claim as a matter of right? (a) Right to take part in business. (b) Right to have access to account books. (c) Right to share profits. (d) Right to receive remuneration. 80. In case of illegal agreements, the collateral agreements are ___________ . (a) Valid. (b) Void. (c) Voidable. (d) None of these. 81. Consent is not said to be free when it is caused by ____________ (a) Coercion. (b) Undue Influence. (c) Fraud. (d) All of these. 82. Moral pressure is involved in the case of ___________ (a) Coercion. (b) Undue Influence. (c) Misrepresentation. (d) Fraud. 83. Sometimes, a party is entitled to claim compensation in proportion to the work done by him. It is possible by a suit for ________ (a) damages (b) injunction (c) quantum meruit (d) none of these. 84. A contract dependent on the happening or non-happening of future uncertain event, is a __________ (a) Uncertain contract. (b) Contingent contract. (c) Void contract. (d) Voidable contract. 85. A agrees to pay Rs. one lakh to B if he brings on earth a star from sky. This is a contingent contract and __________. (a) Illegal (b) Valid (c) Voidable (d) Void. 86. As a general rule, an agreement made without consideration is __________ (a) void (b) voidable (c) valid (d) unlawful 87. An agreement made with free consent to which the consideration is lawful but inadequate, is ________. (a) void (b) valid (c) voidable (d) unlawful Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 41 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 88. A contract with the minor, which is beneficial for him, is __________ (a) void ab initio (b) voidable (c) valid (d) illegal 89. A stipulation in a contract of sale of goods whose violation by seller gives a right of rescission to buyer, is called ____________ (a) Guarantee. (b) Warranty. (c) Condition. (d) Term. 90. The essence of a right of lien is to _________ (a) deliver the goods. (b) retain the possession. (c) regain the possession. (d) none of the above. 91. If a seller handed over the keys of a warehouse containing the goods to the buyer results in ___________ (a) constructive delivery (b) actual delivery (c) symbolic delivery (d) none of the above 92. A agrees to deliver his old car valued at Rs. 80,000 to B, a car dealer, in exchange for a new car, and agrees to pay the difference in cash it is _________ (a) Contract of sale. (b) Agreement to sell. (c) Exchange. (d) Barter. 93. A contact for the sale of goods which provide that the property would pass to the buyer on full payment of price and execution of sale deed, is known as ___________ (a) sale (b) agreement to Sell (c) hire-purchase Agreement (d) sale of approval 94. Voluntary transfer of possession by one person to another is popularly known as __________ (a) Transfer. (b) Possession. (c) Delivery. (d) None of the above. 95. A partner can be expelled if _________________ (a) Such expulsion is in good faith (b) The majority of the partner agree on such expulsion (c) The expelled partner is given an opportunity to start a business competing with that of the firm (d) Compensation is paid 96. A new partner can be admitted in the firm with the consent of _________ (a) All the partners (b) Simple majority of partners (c) Special majority of partners (d) New partner only. 42 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India 97. A partner may retire from an existing firm ________ (a) with consent of all partners (b) as per express agreement (c) by written notice in partnership at will (d) all of the above. 98. A partnership firm is compulsorily dissolved where ___________ (a) All partners have become insolvent (b) Firm’s business has become unlawful (c) The fixed term has expired (d) In cases (a) and (b) only. 99. Ram, Rohit and Kiran jointly borrowed Rs. 2,00,000 from Rahim by executing a promissory note. Rohit and Kiran are not traceable. Rahim wants to recover the entire amount from Ram. Ram objected this move by saying he is liable to pay 1/3 of the debt only. Which of the following statement(s) is correct? (a) Rahim can recover the entire amount from Ram. (b) Rahim can only recover 1/3 of Rs.2,00,000 from Ram. (c) Rahim cannot recover any amount from Ram. (d) The promissory note is not executable against Ram as Rohit and Kiran are not traceable. 100. X agrees with Y to carry passengers by taxi from Delhi to Gurgaon on the following terms, namely, Y is to pay X Rs. 100 per mile per annum, and X and Y are to share the costs of repairing and replacement of the cars, and to divide equally between them the proceeds of fares received from passengers. Choose the correct alternative. (a) X and Y are partners (b) X and Y are cab owners (c) X and Y are co-owners (d) Can’t be decided. SECTION – C : GENERAL ECONOMICS (50 MARKS) 101 Which of the following statements would you consider to be a normative one? (a) Faster economic growth should result if an economy has a higher level of investment. (b) Changing the level of interest rates is a better way of managing the economy than using taxation and government expenditure. (c) Higher levels of unemployment will lead to higher levels of inflation. (d) The average level of growth in the economy was faster in the 1990s than the 1980s. 102. Consider the following and decide which, if any, economy is without scarcity: (a) The pre-independence Indian economy, where most people were farmers. (b) A mythical economy where everybody is a billionaire. (c) Any economy where income is distributed equally among its people. (d) None of the above. Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I 43 © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India MODEL TEST PAPER - 2 103. The economic analysis expects the consumer to behave in a manner which is: (a) Rational (b) Irrational (c) Emotional (d) Indifferent. 104. After reaching the saturation point, consumption of additional units of the commodity cause: (a) Total utility to fall and marginal utility to increase. (b) Total utility and marginal utility both to increase. (c) Total utility to fall and marginal utility to become negative. (d) Total utility to become negative and marginal utility to fall. 105. Consumer surplus is highest in the case of: (a) Necessities. (b) Luxuries. (c) Comforts. (d) Conventional necessities. 106. If one unit of labour and one unit of capital give 200 units of output, two units of labour and two units of capital give 400 units of output and 5 units of labour and five units of capital give 1000 units of output then this is a case of: (a) Constant returns to scale. (b) Increasing returns to scale. (c) Decreasing returns to scale. (d) None of these. 107. The vertical difference between TVC and TC is equal to: (a) MC. (b) AVC. (c) TFC. (d) None of these. 108. Price taker firms: (a) Advertise to increase the demand for their products. (b) Do not advertise because most advertising is harmful for the society. (c) Do not advertise because they can sell as much as they want at the current price. (d) Who advertise will get more profits than those who do not. 109. The AR curve and industry demand curve are same: (a) In the case of monopoly. (b) In the case of oligopoly. (c) In the case of perfect competition. (d) None of the above. 110. Which of the following is not, by definition, equal to National Income? (a) National product (b) National expenditure (c) National output (d) National wealth 44 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - I © The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India